All India Management Association (AIMA) 2009 M.B.A Entrance DU - Question Paper

' 1 + i

logx    logy    logz    . ..    .. . .

20. If 2-2-= ~~2-2-= ~~2-2-then, the value of _x^{(a b)}    y^{(b c)} _z^{(c a)} is

a² + b² + ab b² + c² + bc c² + a² + ac

a. 0    b. 1    c. abc    d. (xyz)^abc

1 -1

21. Solve the equation for x, 2.x³ + 2.x³ = 5.

J     1    _ 1    ₀ 1

^a. ²,2    ^b. ⁴M    ^c. ⁶,0    ^d. 8

²².    V.000064 simplifies to

a. 0.2    b. 0.02    c. 0.4    d. 0.04

23.    Simplify the expression (1 + i )⁶ + (1 + i )⁴ .

a. - 4 - 8i    b. 4 - 8i    c. 8 - 4i    d. 8 + 4i

24.    In a post graduate college, 5% of the students are married and 25% of the married students ae females. Further, 60% of the students are neither married nor females. Which of the following statements are valid?

I.    There is 1 married female student for every 28 unmarried female students.

II.    There is 1 married male student for every 4 unmarried male students.

a. I    b. II    c. Both I and II    d. None

25.    An amount of Rs12500 was deposited for a period of 3 years at a compound interest rate of 20%. What will be the amount of money, in rupees, at the end of 3 years?

a. 21600    b. 22600    c. 23600    d. None of these

26.    The market price of a machine depreciates at an annual compound rate of 10%. If the current market price of the machine is Rs. 8748 then what was its market price 3 years ago?

a. Rs. 12500    b. Rs. 12000    c. Rs. 20000    d.Rs. 20500

27.    A cylinder has a diameter of 8cm and a cuboid has a square base of side length 8cm. If both of these solids have a height of 14 cm then what is the difference in their volumes?

a.196 cc    b.1960 cc    c.1920 cc    d.195 cc

28.    A metallic cuboid has dimensions of 9cm * 10cm * 11cm. How many spherical balls of radius 0.3 cm, can be drawn from this cuboid?

a. 2750    b. 5750    c. 8750    d. 3750

29.    A cylinder of diameter 10 cm and a height of 20 cm is filled with water. If a sphere of diameter 10 cm is completely submerged inside the cylinder, what will be the increase in the level of water, in the cylinder?

a. 3.33 cm    b. 6.67 cm    c. 8.33 cm    d. cannot be determined

30. Four brothers and three sisters sit in a single row, facing the photographers camera. If the three sisters always sit together, how many different photographs, having all of them, can be eliked? a.840    b.126    c.120    d.720

31. From amongst the available 15 cricket players, of whom 5 are bowlers, a team of 11 is to be selected. What is the probability that the selected team will have at least 3 bowlers?

7    5    12    9

^a. 13    ^b. 13    ^c. 13    ^d. 13

(a + ib)

32.    The imaginary part of the complex number (cid) is given by

ac + bd    ac - bd    ad - bc    ad + bc

a. o o    b. o o    c. o o    d. o o

c² - d²    c² + d²    c² - d²    c² + d²

33.    The area of a triangle is 21 sq. units. If two of its vertices lie on points (5, 3) and (-4, -3), then find the locus of the third vertex.

a. 2x - 3y = 15    b. 2x + 3y = 15    c. 3x + 2y = 15    d. 3x - 2y = 15

34.    The profit by selling an item was 25%. If the item was marked 40% above the selling price then what is the ratio of the marked price to the cost price of the item?

5    7    3    1

a.-    b. -    c. -    d. -

4    4    4    4

35.    The per liter price of vehicular fuel has increased by 25%. If the transportation cost is still the same, then what is the ratio of the reduced fuel consumption to the previous fuel consumption?

a. 1:5    b. 1:4    c. 1:3    d. 1:6

36.    The arithmetic mean of the k^th and the l^th terms of an A.P. is equal to the arithmetic mean of the m^th and the n^th terms of the same A.P. Find the value of (m + n).

a. l - k    b. k - l    c. l + k    d. None of these

37.    A very small ball lies at the point (3, 2) in the X - Y plane. The ball is now shifted by 5 units towards the negative Y-axis. If Y-axis were a mirror, then at what point will the image of this ball, lie?

a. (-3, -3)    b. (-3, -2)    c. (-2, -2)    d. (-2, -3)

38.    In the X - Y plane, three lines are concurrent. Their equations are 3x + 4y = 6

5x + 4y = 4 zx + 4y = 5

Find the value of the constant z.

a. 23    b. 25    c. 27    d. 29

39.    If the following three lines pass through the same point in the X - Y plane, then find the value of (a + b).

3x - 2y = 1 5x + 4y = 9 ax + by = 3

a. 0    b.1    c.2    d.3

40.    If ax +by + c = 0 and dx + ey + f = 0 represent the same straight line then which of following is necessarily satisfied?

a b c

a. a = d, b = e and c = f    b. = =

d e f

c. ad + be + cf = 0    d. None of these

Directions for questions 41 to 45: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following pie chart gives the percentage wise break up of the cost price of a machine. Study the pie chart and answer the questions that follow.

Overhead Costs Other Costs

41.    If the "Labour Cost" of a single unit of machine is Rs.2500 then what is the per unit "Marketing Cost" of the machine?

a. Rs. 1125    b. Rs. 112500    c. Rs. 11250    d. none of these.

42.    What is the angle subtended by the "Overheads Cost" at the centre of the circle, in the above pie chart?

a. 15    b. 75    c. 54    d. 45

43.    How much more is the per unit "Packaging Cost" with respect to the per unit "Marketing Cost"? a. 94.44%    b. 84.44%    c. 104.44%    d. none of these

44.    If the per unit "Packaging Cost" cost of the machine is reduced by 10% then what will be the change in the per unit cost price of the machine?

a. -2.5%    b. -10%    c. -1.5%    d. -3.5%

45. Which of the following is true?

a.    The sum of per unit "Other Costs" and the "Labour Cost" add up to the per unit "Packaging Cost"

b.    The sum of per unit "Overhead Cost" and the "Marketing Cost" add up to the per unit "Packaging Cost"

c.    The sum of per unit "Other Cost" and the "Marketing Cost" add up to the per unit "Packaging Cost"

d.    none of these.

Directions for questions 46 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following bar graph shows the annual comparisons of the "Targeted Production" with the "Actual Production" for a manufacturing plant. Study the bar graph and answer the questions that follow.

46.    What is the ratio of the "Targeted Production" to the "Actual Production" in the year 2000 - 2001?

11    17    15    19

^a. 12 ^b. 18 ^c. 16 ^d. 20

47.    What percent of the "Targeted production" was met by the "Actual Production", in the year 2002 -2003?

a. 112.5%    b. 12.5%    c. 125%    d. 120.5%

48.    Which of the following two consecutive years have followed the same trend of "Actual Production" with respect to the "Targeted Production"?

a.1999-2000 and 2001-2002    b.2000-2001 and 2002-2003

c. 2001-2002 and 2000-2001    d. 2002-2003 and 2003-2004

49.    In which of the following years the "Actual Production" surpassed the "Targeted Production" by the

maximum percentage?

a. 1999-2000    b. 2000-2001    c. 2002-2003    d. 2003-2004

50.    Which of the following statements is correct about the cumulative production of the plant from the

year 1999 to the year 2004?

a.    The cumulative "Actual Production" has missed the cumulative "Targeted Production" by less than 10%.

b.    The cumulative "Actual Production" has surpassed the cumulative "Targeted Production" by more than 10%

c.    The cumulative "Actual Production" has missed the cumulative "Targeted Production" by more than 10%.

d.    The cumulative "Actual Production" has surpassed the cumulative "Targeted Production" by less than 10 %

Answers and Explanations

Only (I) is valid .

Option (a) is correct

26. b Final price, A = 8748 Rs.

Time = n = 3 years depreciation rate = r = -10%

Let the price, 3 years ago be, P

Hence (c) is correct.

3(- 12 + 9b) + 2(- 15 + 9a) - 1 (5b - 4a) = 0 22 (a + b) = 66 (a + b) = 3 Option (d) is correct

FMS ACTUAL PAPER 2007    Page 5

FMS MOCKTEST

Instructions

1.    DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.

2.    This booklet contains 24 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all pages are printed properly.

3.    Keep only the Admit Card, pencil eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT keep with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, or any other device. These should be left outside the room.

4.    This paper has 150 questions. The total time for the test is 120 minutes.

5.    The paper is divided into five sections.

Section-I : 30 Questions Section-II : 30 Questions Section-III : 30 Questions Section-IV : 30Questions Section-V : 30 Questions

6.    Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each group of questions to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate ovals.

7.    Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.

8.    Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper.

9.    Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.

10.    At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, 'You may leave now." The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets and answer sheets from everyone in the room.

ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/SEEKING/RECEIVING ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.

Direction for questions 1 to 30: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

Passage - 1

The scene is fairly familiar at first. The lights dim, and an eerie squeal of flutes silences the rustle and buzz of the audience. The first actor enters, attired in full Kabuki dress and pandemonium erupts in the crowd. Men bellow through cupped hands. To a foreigner the reaction seems a little harsh: the poor man has yet to utter a single line. However, no ushers appear to clear the stalls and soon everyone settles down to listen to the opening speech. Then another actor enters and ka boom the hecklers start again, leaning forward to scream at the newcomer. Strangely, he appears pleased. Evidently I'm missing something.

The English commentary in my earphones soon confirms that I am. Such outbursts are expected, the voice explains, even demanded in Japanese theatre. The audience is calling out the actors' names, and the greater the performer's standing the higher the roof is raised. Forget the sharp sshhh!' that greets any interruption in a Western theatre. Fans are supposed to shout here. Keeping your mouth shut is almost rude.

If you were to listen to the dinner party talk from Beijing to Bangalore, you might think theatre was all but dead in Asia. The occasional touring production or big musical Cats, The Phantom of the Opera, Les Miserables and now Miss Saigon offers glimpses of Broadway or London's West End. But outside the dull conservatism of national troupes or small-scale experimental groups, the culture vultures say pickings are slim.

Not so in Tokyo, the theatrical centre of the East. Simultaneous English translations and programme notes make traditional shows easy to follow. And in the Ginza district, the heart of Tokyo's theatreland, audiences can catch not only Kabuki but also Japanese productions of Bernstein, Beckett, Shakespeare and Gilbert and Sullivan.

Part of the fun of watching Western classics such as 42nd street is observing how Japanese portray foreigners. It's like seeing yourself in a fairground Hall of Mirrors: the image is familiar, but amusingly distorted. Wearing blond wigs and remembering not to bow in greeting, the actors nonetheless sometimes resort to peculiarly Japanese gestures: signalling Me' by pointing fingers to their noses and hiding laughter by pressing their palms to their faces. The five troupes of the Takarazuka Grand Theater company, opposite the Imperial Hotel, have a staggering repertoire from West Side Story to Hamlet and perform their own dramatizations of Hemingway's For Whom the Bell Tolls and Tolstoy's War and Peace. The male leads are romantic and clean-cut, strong yet sensitive, not least because they are played by women. The mobs of female fans that crowd the stage door after the show bear witness to how poorly Japanese men apparently measure up to this ideal. Its recent productions include Gone with the Wind, Jekyll and Hyde and Fiddler on the Roof.

Even Kabuki is getting accessible. The Ichikawa family's Super Kabuki company has reinvented the genre for modern audiences by featuring special effects that wouldn't be out of place in Hollywood. In Shin Sangokushi, a real waterfall as wide as the stage is the backdrop for a hair-raising battle to the death. Spectators in one corner are given plastic capes to protect themselves from the victor's splashy triumph. In another scene, a doomed ship floats on a sea of dry ice its crew writhing in flames of flickering red light before breaking in two

and plunging through the stage with a groan worthy of the Titanic. Taped commentaries offer whispered guides to the complicated and often racy plots. The Tourist Information Center will tell you where the company is playing. Or try the more traditional and world-famous Kabuki-za at the Ginza stop on the Hibiya subway, which also features English commentaries. But be warned: Kabuki-za's epics can each run to five hours.

After the show, Ginza offers Tokyo's finest and (most expensive) sushi, at up to $300 a head. But just as authentic and considerably cheaper is the alfresco Yurakucho Yakitori Alley, where $30 will buy a meal of some of the capital's best grilled chicken, beef or seafood. The area is under the Shinkansen line and a stroll from most theatres. Call it 'Bullet Trains over Broadway'.

1.    A foreigner finds the reaction of a crowd to the entry of an actor as harsh because

a.    the actor has not yet demonstrated his talents to the crowd for their judgment.

b.    the author could not hear a word of what was going on.

c.    the author could not understand the regional language.

d.    the opening speech was drowned in the pandemonium that ensued.

2.    The word alfresco' in the passage refers to

a.    a wall painting.

b.    a cheap eating-joint.

c.    an open air eating place.

d.    None of these

3.    The word sshhh' in the passage implies that

a.    the author was not happy to witness the chaos in the Japanese theatre.

b.    Western audiences are not very demonstrative when it comes to appreciating the theatre.

c.    interruptions are not welcome in Western theatres.

d.    None of these

4.    How does the author react to the duration of the Kabuki-za epic?

a.    He is elated.

b.    He is doubtful whether one can stay that long.

c.    He prefers one-act plays.

d.    Cannot say

5.    With the term ...pickings are slim', the author wishes to convey that

a.    theatre thrives in Asia.

b.    the big musicals boasts of a large audience.

c.    theatre is not very active in Asia.

d.    theaters do not make enough money to cover expenses and so they totter on the way.

6.    The plastic capes were given to part of the spectators

a.    to ensure that the spectators are able to protect themselves from extreme hooliganism.

b.    to generate special effects for the drama.

c.    to protect the spectators from the water splashing around in the finale.

d.    so that they can avoid the glare of the arc-lights.

7.    What is the author's reaction to the way the Japanese portray foreigners in Western classics?

a.    He finds it derisive.

b.    He thinks that the Japanese are being patronizing.

c.    He is amused.

d.    He feels that they are making a mockery of the Western culture.

8.    The author feels that the Japanese men

a.    match the Japanese women stroke by stroke.

b.    are romantic and callous.

c.    do not measure up to the ideal male leads in the theatre.

d.    are lapping up all the lead roles.

9.    The recent productions of the Takarazuka Grand Theater company do not include

a. Pride and Prejudice. b. Gone with the Wind. c. Fiddler on the Roof. d. Jekyll and Hyde.

10.    The word repertoire' in the passage means

a. lead roles.    b. collection of plays. c. place of performance. d. None of these

Passage - 2

When we remember President Franklin D. Roosevelt's leadership after the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, we tend to think of the famous response that he carefully dictated to his secretary, punctuation included: Yesterday comma December 7 comma 1941 dash a date which will live in infamy . . . Yet the President's leadership was most sorely tested not on the Sunday of the surprise attack or the Monday he delivered his address but in the long, difficult days that followed. Then as now, America's sense of territorial invulnerability had been shattered. Rumours swirled: the Japanese were planning to bomb Los Angeles, were already bombing San Francisco. There was real fear, not just among the public but also within the government, that Japan might invade the American mainland, whose defences were weakened by the crippling of the Navy.

The differences between Pearl Harbor and last Tuesday's attack are abundant. At Pearl Harbor, the Japanese targeted a military base; last week the terrorists targeted ordinary civilians travelling in the air, working in their offices, walking on the streets. Then, unlike today, we faced discrete, known enemies. But Pearl Harbor, and America's larger history, teaches us that at these crucial junctures, resolve and unity are powerful weapons against despair and hysteria.

After Pearl Harbor, symbolic acts were as significant as physical preparation for war. Franklin and Eleanor Roosevelt worked together to demonstrate that the war overseas would be won only by preserving American liberty at home. The week after the raid, the Secret Service suggested a list of security measures at the White House: camouflaging the building, placing machine guns on the roof, covering the skylights with sand and tin. Roosevelt rejected most of the suggestions, to show that the capital stood unbowed much as, a century earlier, Abraham Lincoln insisted that the construction of the Capitol dome be completed in the midst of the Civil War. Similarly, on Tuesday President Bush decided to end the day in Washington rather than in a NORAD bunker. On Friday he presided over a national day of prayer, giving prominent roles to people of all races and creeds, including a Muslim religious leader.

Eleanor, visiting the West Coast after Pearl Harbor, bore witness to the hysteria directed against Japanese Americans. Government officials swooped down upon Japanese banks, stores and houses. Swimming against the tide of prejudice, Eleanor antagonized many Californians when she called for tolerance and posed for a picture with US born Japanese Americans; the editorial board of The Los Angeles Times reacted angrily and called for her forcible retirement from public life. The First Lady responded that more than fairness was at stake:Almost the biggest obligation we have today is to prove that in a time of stress we can still live up to our beliefs. Though the US later let that principle down with the internment camps, it remains a valuable point to remember, particularly if images of Palestinians celebrating the attacks inflame anger at Arab Americans here.

In many ways, the challenge facing George W. Bush is greater than Roosevelt's. F.D.R. was an immensely popular third-term president who had led America through the Great Depression. And he had the luxury of immediate, concrete action that galvanized Americans in the days and weeks after the attack. There were weapons to be built, resources to be conserved, a military force to assemble. This week, outside Washington and New York City, there was little more for most Americans to do than give blood.

But the crisis today makes such mundane acts heroic. Terrorism seeks to turn ordinary life into a battlefield, and the bravest act Americans can undertake in the coming weeks is to go about their daily lives, ride airplanes and elevators and do what the British did during the Blitz, show up at work every morning. Today, Bush has the opportunity to draw on something we rarely experience: the feeling that America is not merely an abstraction but an entity of which we are each a vital part.

On Christmas Eve 1941, over the objections of the Secret Service, F.D.R insisted on lighting the White House Christmas tree. It made a memorable night for the fifteen thousand people who gathered to hear him speak, illumined by a crescent moon, the red light of the Washington Monument and the glow of the tree. While we prepare to strike back against terrorism and secure our skies and our homes, the challenge to our leaders and to all of us is to show that no terrorist group will be allowed to extinguish the beacons of freedom and democracy.

11.    Roosevelt's leadership evokes memories of his famous response because

a.    Pearl Harbor was attacked on December 7, 1941.

b.    he delivered his address in parliament and asked Congress for a declaration of war.

c.    America's invincibility came under question during his tenure.

d.    the response is now inevitably linked to his tenure during the attack on Pearl Harbor.

12.    The word beacons' is used in the passage to convey

a.    that no one can take away America's right to freedom.

b.    the safety of the skies were taken for granted before the Pearl Harbor attack.

c.    that the torch of freedom and democracy shall not be extinguished.

d.    None of these

13.    How were the enemies of the Pearl Harbor attack different from the enemies of the Tuesday attack?

a.    The enemies in the former case were unknown and the enemies of the Tuesday attack were identified terrorists.

b.    The enemies in the former case were untrained and the enemies of the Tuesday attack were experts.

c.    The enemies in the former case were identifiable and the enemies of the Tuesday attack were faceless.

d.    None of these

14. We can infer from the passage that the passage is written by a contemporary of

a. Franklin D. Roosevelt    b. George W. Bush

c. Either of these    d. Cannot say

15.    Which of the following is not an example of a mundane act made heroic'?

a.    To ride airplanes after the Tuesday attack.

b.    To show up at work every morning.

c.    To go about one's daily routines without taking any extraordinary precautionary measure.

d.    None of these

16.    Why is the challenge facing George W. Bush greater than that Roosevelt faced?

a.    Roosevelt was a third-term president and so was already very popular.

b.    Roosevelt had a concrete action plan in hand to galvanize the Americans into action.

c.    Roosevelt had already proved himself by leading America through the Great Depression.

d.    All of these

17.    In the passage, the author draws comparisons between all of the below except

a.    Roosevelt and Lincoln.

b.    Roosevelt and Bush.

c.    the Pearl Harbor attack and the Tuesday attack.

d.    Franklin and Eleanor Roosevelt.

18.    Eleanor Roosevelt's response can be termed as

a. prejudiced.    b. frivolous.    c. contrived.    d. courageous.

19.    The lesson that is learned from the Roosevelts is

a.    declare war against your enemies.

b.    take all the necessary measures to guarantee that you shall not become a target of enemy attacks again.

c.    not to be cowed down, not to blame the wrong people and not to give up your beliefs under stress.

d.    None of these

20.    The word abstraction' is used in the passage to convey that

a.    the citizens of America do not consider themselves as part of a great nation.

b.    America is not a theoretical concept but a concrete entity that is comprised of its citizens.

c.    Americans are not very patriotic at the national level.

d.    None of these

Passage - 3

At 10 every morning, Tabassum, a Lakme beauty advisor, walks into Unique Matching Centre, a medium-sized women's needs outlet in Dadar (West), Mumbai. By the time she walks out every evening, she has talked to over 50 customers and sold Lakme Lever colour cosmetics worth Rs. 850-1,000. That's a good 30-40% higher than what Unique sold before her appointment. According to Lakme Lever (a division of Hindustan Lever), last festive season Tabassum and 389 such beauty advisors grew Lakme sales at these outlets by 42% more than its growth expectations of 16% and way above the 10-25% averaged by the 60,000 other outlets that retail Lakme's colour cosmetics sans advisors.

Cosmetics major Lakme's theory that adding a service dimension to the brand would increase sales is beginning to pay off. And it is taking a quantum leap forward by entering the Rs. 500 crore beauty salons business. It has 32 full fledged salons around the country; four of these have been around since the seventies and the rest have come up in the last one year. It now plans to roll out another 200 over the next three years. That will make it one of the world's largest beauty salon chains. In fact, HLL's foray into the services business, the laundrette pilot and home delivery (Sangam Direct), was also promoted by the Lakme experience.

So why did this FMCG company enter services? Lakme's position as market leader was threatened when international majors like Revlon and Maybelline entered the fray in the mid-90s. Lakme realised it had to do something fast to retain its 60 per cent market share. It launched Elle 18 (a lower-priced brand targeted at teenagers). And figured that point-of-sale push would help. Thus, the beauty advisor idea emerged.

Tabassum's presence behind the counter and the interaction she brings into the consumer's purchase experience turned out to be a key sale clincher in the Rs. 500 crore colour cosmetics category that is largely driven by impulse purchases. The advisors gave Lakme a direct information channel for consumer preferences and offtake, among other things. This helped the company cut inventory by about 40 per cent, while maintaining its

S.K.U. (stock keeping unit) strength of 185. No specific numbers are available, but going by the industry's average inventory holding of about 16-20 weeks along the supply chain, Lakme saves around Rs. 15-20 crores. Sure, its stockout rose from three to five per cent, but counters Anil Chopra, business head at Lakme Lever, the savings from the inventory cuts more than offset this loss. Advisors also cost Lakme little; they are employed by the distributors; Lakme only indirectly subsidises the cost. The risk of failure, too, is low: an advisor can be replaced easily. And the model is scaleable.

No wonder Lakme Lever is rolling out the beauty advisor concept. The idea is to have them man outlets with monthly sales of Rs. 25,000 plus. Of the 600 nationwise outlets that fit the bill, advisors remain to be placed in 210. This could take another year.

Consumers like and even expect a certain amount of hand-holding in choosing cosmetics, says Inder Madhan, GM, Lifespring, a health and beauty chain. Others like Modi Revlon have employed this strategy to even better effect, We have seen our sales go up by 50 per cent whenever we place a beauty advisor in an outlet. Revlon is the best selling brand in all the stores that we have a beauty advisor in, claims Umesh Kumar Modi, CEO, Modi Revlon. Nevertheless, none have adopted a scale as large as that of Lakme's. Modi plans to increase the number of advisors by 50 per cent this year, to a total of only 500 in two years. It also does not plan to set up any beauty salons here, unlike in the international markets where Revlon has outlets, albeit on a small scale.

So what does Lakme see in salons that others don't? Chopra expects the Indian market to grow at 20 per cent annually to touch Rs. 1,000 crore in four years. There are 4,936 salons in Delhi alone, about 11 per cent of which are in the A+ (super premium) category, and 20 per cent are in the B+ and B categories, says Rohit Sood, vice president (marketing), Brushman India, the marketing partner of Dutch hair cosmetics giant Keune, which is setting up 80 haircare salons in the next three years. If each salon in Delhi makes an average of Rs. 500 a day (premium brands like Keune expect Rs 2,000 per chair per day) the Delhi salon market could be worth Rs. 75 crore a year. Demand, too, is growing, given the 25 million-odd middle- and upper-class working women in India who are becoming increasingly conscious of their looks. Profit margins are also good: Lakme can net 25-30 per cent (almost double the margins made selling cosmetics) through the franchisee model.

According to the Global Salon Panels India 2001 report, published by Diagonal Reports, an Ireland-based market intelligence research firm, 80 per cent of the 1,000 salons that were polled used Wella (an international brand), 60 per cent used L'Oreal and 40 per cent used brands like Avon, Ayur and Shahnaz Hussain, among others. Lakme and HLL were not among the most preferred. Sales has to be pushed at the salons, but Lakme figured it could do better. It decided to set up its own business. We wanted to create an alternative channel, says Chopra.

Each salon will have a standardised format: 2,000 square feet space costing about Rs. 20 lakh (excluding real estate). Some of the salons will be company owned; most of the new ones will be franchised. The model has been perfected in smaller cities including Pune, Indore, Vadodara, Ludhiana and Jalandhar. Lakme will provide the technical expertise; investments in real estate and operations will be made by the franchisee.

Cosmetics firms have succeeded in the salons business abroad. UK-based Toni and Guy, which makes haircare products and runs 150 hair salons, is the best example. For Lakme to succeed, it has to first iron out a few glitches.

First is reach. Few people visit salons that are not in their neighbourhood. Can Lakme get that kind of reach in all the major cities? Unlikely, in the short-term. Some sort of an alliance or co-branding with the salons that already exist may, perhaps, have been a better strategy, argues Keune's Sood. Second is positioning. The general perception is that company-owned salons are expensive. Though Lakme beauty salons are reasonably priced, it has not been communicated well enough, says the business head of an upmarket salon chain.

Once sorted out, salons can also fuel the growth of HLL's hair-care brands.Currently, about 10 per cent of our salons' total billings are product sales. This could go up to 20 per cent, says Chopra.

Most significant though will be the impact on Lakme's bottomline. By going for franchises, Lakme avoids large capital investments and recurring expenditure. Yet, it will get 20 per cent of the salons' billings as franchise fees. If the business grows big enough to contribute 25-30 per cent of sales 2004 onwards (from the current five per cent levels) as Chopra hopes, it could even contribute one-third to one-half of Lakme's profits. And that's why Lakme is donning the war paint.

21.    Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

a.    Beauty advisors grew Lakme's sales by 42 per cent in the last festive season.

b.    Lakme had a growth expectation of 16 per cent in the last festive season.

c.    Retail outlets grew Lakme's sales by 10-25 per cent in the last festive season.

d.    None of the above

22.    The author uses the term donning the war paint' to convey that

a.    Lakme is on the warpath with HLL hair-care brands.

b.    Lakme is making an all-out effort to up its profits through the franchising route.

c.    Lakme is focusing only on colour cosmetics at the moment to paint the town red.

d.    None of the above

23.    We can infer from the passage that

a.    Lakme's plans of making itself into one of the world's largest beauty salon chains would remain a pipeline dream.

b.    Lakme's four beauty salons that existed from the seventies have not been an encouraging experience.

c.    Sangam Direct would not have been launched had it not been for the Lakme experience.

d.    None of the above

24.    The best example of a cosmetic firm that has successfully ventured into the salon business is a. Keune.    b. Modi Revlon.    c. Toni and Guy.    d. L'Oreal.

25.    According to the passage, all of the following statements are true except

a.    beauty advisors helped Lakme cut inventory by about 40 per cent.

b.    Lakme regrets that its stockouts rose from three to five per cent.

c.    beauty advisors are not an expensive proposition for Lakme.

d.    None of the above

26.    The Global Salon Panels India 2001 report revealed all of the below except which one?

a.    Wella was the most preferred brand.

b.    L'Oreal was used by 60 per cent of the salons polled.

c.    Ayur was not left behind in the race for the preferred brand.

d.    HLL was not among the preferred brands.

27.    The author mentions consumers expect a certain amount of hand-holding' to imply that

a.    Lakme beauty salons have not communicated their pricing strategy accurately to the people.

b.    the colour cosmetic customer has no clue as to how to enhance her beauty through makeup.

c.    consumers prefer expert guidance in buying the right cosmetics.

d.    customers are easy prey for a smooth-talking saleswoman.

28.    A suitable topic for the passage would be

a.    Lakme Leading the Cosmetic Market.

b.    Salon Business to the Rescue.

c.    Beauty Tips Boost Lakme Sales.

d.    Lakme Enters the Service Sector.

29.    Approximately, what percentage of Delhi salons falls in the super premium category?

a. 20 per cent    b. 21 per cent    c. 11 per cent    d. 25 per cent

30.    What made Lakme take action to retain its market share?

a.    Teenagers did not show much interest in cosmetics.

b.    Lakme's brand equity was eroded by the failure of salons business.

c.    Franchise models tried out in smaller cities flopped in big metros.

d.    Lakme felt the threatening presence of international leaders like Revlon.

42.    To consider and talk about each detail of a theory or a situation:

a. Gossip    b. Moot    c. Dissect    d. Ponder

43.    All the traditions of a country that has continued for many years and have been passed on from one generation to another:

a. Heritage    b. Moribund    c. Orthodox    d. Conservative

44.    Goods of a higher than usual quality and often expensive:

a. Pricey    b. Bauble    c. Meretricious    d. Premium

45.    A narrow piece of decorated cloth or twisted threads, which is used to decorate clothes or curtains: a. Relay    b. Braid    c. Warp    d. Weft

Direction for questions 46 to 50: Complete the sentences given below by selecting the appropriate choice from among the given alternatives.

46. Washington is_to prepare its people for a prolonged retaliatory strike.

a. stepping down efforts    b. stepping up effort

c. stepping up efforts    d. stepped up efforts

47. When we do survive,

48. It's a pity_selfish, ungrateful person inside.

a.    which most people see only your good-looking exterior and not the

b.    that most people see only your good-looking exterior and not the

c.    that most people see only your good-looking exterior and the not

d.    that most people see only your good-looking exterior and not

49. We must be guided by_mere revenge.

a. higher goals than b. higher goals than by c. higher goals

50. Give yourself permission_boredom or irritation.

a.    to feel what you're feeling, the professionals urge, even if it's

b.    to feel what you're feel, the professionals urge, even if it's

c.    to feel what you're feeling, the professionals urges, even if it's

d.    to feel what you're feeling, the professional urge, even if it's

Direction for questions 51 to 55: Select the appropriate pair of words from among the given choices that parallels the relation in the given pair of words in the question.

51. Nemesis : Punishment

a. Revenge : Likely    b. Rationality : Logic

c. Reason : Infamy    d. Paragon : Crisis

54. Prairie : North America a. Steppe : Croatia

c. Chateaux : France

55. Hindsight : After

a. Premonition : Before

c. Judgment : Conceited

Direction for questions 56 to 60: Pick out the word from among the given choices that has the correct spelling.

c. Pandaemonium d. Pandemonium

61.    Dashing Bhaskar can stuff valentine cards into envelopes at a rate of 45 envelopes per minute while Dynamic Lajwanti takes 1.5 min to stuff the same number. Working together, how much time will they take to stuff 300 envelopes?

a. 3 min    b. 3.5 min    c. 3.75 min    d. 4 min

62.    On a certain day, Rohit started with p newspapers. From morning to noon, he sold 40% of the papers, and between noon and evening he sold 60% of the remaining. Then he realised that had he sold double the number of newspapers than he sold in the afternoon, he would have had to borrow 12 papers from another vendor. Find p.

a. 108    b. 100    c. 96    d. 72

63.    If a% of b is c, b% of c is a and c% of a is 1, then which of the following is not true? a. a = 10    b. b = 100    c. a = c    d. a = b

64.    If n is an integer between 0 and 100, then any of the following could be 3n + 3 except a. 300    b. 297    c. 208    d. 63

65.    Suvakar charges interest on his lendings at 20% SI per annum. However, the interest is payable in the beginning of each half-year. The effective half-yearly simple rate of interest would work out to be

a. 11.11%    b. 10.5%    c. 22.22%    d. None of these

66.    If log₁₀ a, log₁₀ b and log₁₀ c are in AP, then a, b, c must be be in

a. AP¹⁰    10    10 b. HP    c. GP    d. both AP and GP

67.    If log_r p = 2 and log_r q = 3, then what is the value of log_p q?

3    1    2

^a. -    ^b. -    ^c. ⁶    d. 3

68.    Rashmi started a business with Rs. 4,500 and Pratima joined afterwards with Rs. 3,000. If the profits at the end of one year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1 respectively, how many months later did Pratima join the business after the start?

a. 1.5    b. 2    c. 3    d. 4.5

69.    Kunjumol's bag contains 800 coins of 25-paisa denomination and 1,200 coins of 50-paisa denomination. If 5% of 25-paisa coins and 25% of 50-paisa coins are removed, the percentage of money removed from the bag is

a. 30%    b. 20%    c. 17.8%    d. None of these

70.    A company manufactures two products X and Y. One unit of X requires 3 units of material A and 2 units of material B while one unit of Y requires 2 units of material A and 5 units of material B. If 25 units of each product were to be produced, calculate the requirement of material B.

a. 175    b. 125    c. 150    d. None of these

71.    It costs Rs. 10,000 to make the first thousand copies of a book and x rupees to make each subsequent copy. If it costs a total of Rs. 72,300 to make the first 8,000 copies of the book, what is the value x? a. Rs. 8.90    b. Rs. 8.75    c. Rs. 89    d. None of these

72.    Each time Princy smiles at Komal, she is rewarded Rs. 20 and each time she quarrels with Komal, she pays a penalty of Rs. 15. If this sequence of smiling and quarrelling continues, in how many sequences does Princy reaches the figure of Rs. 60 for the first time?

a. 8    b. 9.5    c. 12    d. 9

73.    Find a and b such that (x + 1) and (x + 2) are factors of the polynomial x³ + ax² -bx + 10.

a. 8 and -17    b. 17 and -8    c. -9 and -1    d. None of these

74.    Given are the lengths of the sides and a diagonal of quadrilateral ABCD as shown below. Find its area and length of the other diagonal.

B

a. 65,576    b. /6,    c. 12-76,476    d. 12-76,5

75. Sanjay Veer is a land surveyor. One day he records the following details in his notebook. What is the area of the land surveyed? (All readings are in metres.)

76. The wages received by A, B and C together amount to Rs. 144. If A works for 10 days, B for 12 days and

If x^a = y, y^b = z and z^c = x, what is

82.    Two bullock carts move in the same direction from the same place at the rate of 4 km/hr and 4.5 km/hr respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart?

a. 1 hr    b. 3 hr 50 min    c. 17 hr    d. 13 hr 15 min

83.    A train leaves from Meerut at 7 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 11 a.m. Another train leaves from Delhi at

9 a.m. and reaches Meerut at 12.30 p.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?

a. 9.56 a.m.    b. 10.36 a.m.    c. 10.56 a.m.    d. 11 a.m.

84. If x men working x hours a day can do x units of a work in x days, then y men working y hours per day in y days would be able to complete how many units of work?

x³

b. ~ y²

85. If f(x) = 1 + x + 1, what is f| + f(x)?

1

94.    If one root of quadratic equation px² + ^qx + ^r = 0 is equal to the 4th power of the other, then

_4 2 11    ll    A 4 1

a. p⁵r⁵ + p⁵r⁵ + q = 0 b. (pr)⁵ + (pr)⁵ + q = 0 c. p⁵ + r⁵ = q⁵    d. None of these

95.    How many different words can be formed with the letters of PUNJAB', when both P and N are together? a. 120    b. 240    c. 144    d. None of these

96.    The area within the curve |x| + |y| = 8 is

a. 32 sq. units    b. 64 sq. units    c. 128 sq. units    d. None of these

97.    There are 19 identical red balls and one black ball. In a green jar 10 balls are put and the remaining

10 balls are put in a yellow jar. What is the probability of the black ball being in the yellow jar?

9    111

^a. 19    ^b. 20    - 19    ^d 2

Direction for questions 98 to 102: Answer the questions based on the following information.

Unclaimed redemption and dividend amounts for TMF India Ltd.

The amount of dividends declared and redemptions made, which were remaining unclaimed as on the balance sheet data are given below.

98.    What is the average dividend amount per unclaimed warrants across all schemes for TMF India Ltd.? a. Rs. 1,964    b. Rs. 2,734    c. Rs. 3,822    d. None of these

99.    What is the approximate ratio of the average redemption amount per warrant in TIGF scheme to that in FIBF scheme?

a. 10 : 9    b. 9 : 10    c. 11 : 13    d. 9 : 13

100.    Which of the following statement(s) is(are) not true?

I.    The total amount of unclaimed warrants for TIGF and TIIF schemes is Rs. 48.57 lakh.

II.    TIIF scheme accounts for more than 60% of the total number of unclaimed warrants.

a. Only (I)    b. Only (II)    c. Both (I) and (II) d. Both are true

101.    What is the percentage of unclaimed dividend amount in TMIP scheme?

a. 7.8%    b. 5.2%    c. 10.5%    d. Cannot be determined

102.    A scheme is given the star' status when it has minimum number of unclaimed warrants for that scheme, among all others. Among the given schemes, which scheme is to be awarded star' status?

a.    FIIF    b. FIBF    c. TIIF    d. Cannot be determined

Direction for questions 103 to 107: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer the questions using the following instructions.

Mark a. if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.

b.    if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

c.    if the question can be answered by using both the the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

d.    if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

103.    Is x greater than y?

I.    x + y = 16

II.    x + 2P = 5, y + P = 20

104.    What is the distance of the point (x, y) from the origin?

I.    x² + y² = 16

II.    x = 4, y = 0

105.    What is the value of x - y - z?

I.    x, y, z are either 1 or 0

II.    x² + y² + z² = 1

106.    What is the number k?

1

I.    One-fourth of the number exceeds 5 of its succeeding number by 3.

II.    k is a positive integer.

107.    What is length of the side of an equilateral triangle formed by a wire?

I.    The total length of the wire is divisible by 3.

II.    The area of the rectangle formed by the same wire is twice the area of the square formed by the wire.

108.    Which of the following represents the teachers who are professors and lecturers, but not authors? a. B    b. E    c. C    d. None of these

109.    G' represents the region of

a.    teachers who are authors and professors but not lectures

b.    lecturers who are authors and professors but not teachers

c.    authors who are teachers and lecturers but not professors

d.    lecturers who are authors but not professors and teachers

110.    Lecturers who are not authors, teachers and professors are represented by

a. E    b. F    c. I    d. L

111.    Which of the following statement is true?

a.    B represents the region of teachers who are professors but not lecturers

b.    J represents the region of lecturers who are professors but not authors and teachers

c.    C represents the region of teachers who are professors and lecturers but not authors

d.    None of these

112.    Only teachers, professors, lecturers and authors are represented respectively by

a. A, F, D, I    b. A, D, I, H    c. A, D, H, I    d. A, D, L, H

Direction for questions 113 to 117: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. Seven cars Alto, Benz, Cadillac, Dolly, Electra, Fiat and Givo are ranked on the basis of their performance, consecutively in a row but not necessarily in the same order.

Following data is also given.

Alto is standing in the middle of the row. Benz is as much less than Alto as Cadillac is greater than Fiat in ranking. Fiat is ranked three places less than Givo. Electra is ranked higher than Benz.

113.    From right-hand side, the sixth car of the row is

a. Alto    b. Cadillac    c. Benz    d. Givo

114.    How many cars are standing between Benz and Givo?

a. 2    b. 3    c. 4    d. 5

115.    If the rank of Fiat was 99 from left-hand side, then the sum of the rank values of Dolly and Electra would be

a. 190    b. 200    c. 198    d. 204

116.    Which of the following cars are standing at the beginning and the end of the rows?

a. Benz and Givo    b. Dolly and Electra c. Dolly and Givo    d. Electra and Benz

117.    The number of cars separating Dolly and Cadillac is similar to the number of cars separating a. Benz and Fiat    b. Fiat and Givo    c. Electra and Benz d. Fiat and Electra

Direction for questions 118 to 120: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. There are three different books written by different authors and are published by different publishers. Following information is also given.

I.    Vikram Chandra's work is not published by Harper Collins.

II.    Fiction work is not published either by Oxford University Press or Harper Collins.

III.    V. S. Naipaul and Vikram Seth are not interested in doing non-fiction work.

IV.    Poetry is not by Vikram Seth.

118.    Harper Collins publishes

a. non-fiction    b. fiction    c. poetry    d. Cannot be determined

119.    Vikram Chandra's work is published by

a. Penguin    b. Harper Collins

c. Oxford University Press    d. Cannot be determined

120.    Which of the following is a correct combination?

a.    Vikram Chandra - Poetry - Harper Collins

b.    V. S. Naipaul - Non-fiction - Penguin

c.    Vikram Seth - Fiction - Oxford University Press

d.    None of the above

121.    Indian Television Academy's best news channel award has been won by which of the following news channels recently?

a. Star News    b. Zee News    c. Aaj Tak    d. DD-1

122.    Quality in everything we do' is the punchline associated with which of the following companies? a. DHL Worldwide Express    b. Ernst & Young

c. Accenture    d. Novell

123.    The name United Nations' was suggested by which of the following famous personalties?

a. Winston Churchill b. Anwar Sadat    c. Jimmy Carter    d. Franklin D. Roosevelt

124.    East Timor, that got independence from Indonesia recently, was very much in the news. East Timor became independent on which of the following dates?

a. January 20, 2002 b. March 20, 2002 c. May 20, 2002    d. August 20, 2002

125.    This airlines was in the news recently for filling bankruptcy the biggest ever in the global aviation history. We are taking about

a. France Air    b. United Airlines    c. Cathay Pacific    d. Lufthansa

126.    Which of the following personalities has recently been appointed as the chief executive officer of the bankrupt WorldCom Inc.?

a. John Sidgmore b. Bernie Ebbers    c. Michael Capellas d. Charles B. Wang

127.    Achtung baby' and easy to get in, bloody tough to get out' are the famous advertisement campaigns you would associate with

a. J. Watler Thompson b. Ogilvy & Mathers c. McCann-Erickson d. Saatchi & Saatchi

128.    Jerry Young and David Flio are associated with the foundation of which of the following companies? a. Seiko    b. Google

c. Intel    d. Yahoo

129.    Which of the following world bodies was the outcome of Uruguay round of talks (1986-94)? a. European Union    b. World Economic Forum

c. World Trade Organisation    d. International Monetary Fund

130.    Which of the following famous inventors of all time is associated with the establishment of the world's most admired company GE?

a. Albert Einstein    b. Benjamin Franklin c. Thomas Alva Edison d. Michael Faraday

131.    Winner of Miss World 2002 title, held recently, is

a. Marina Mora Montero b. Natalia Peralta c. Agbani Darego    d. Azra Akin

132. Which of the following personalities is the architect of the Eiffel Tower?

a. Gustavo Eiffel    b. Cesar Pelli    c. Mauroice Koechlin d. Stephen Sauvestre

133.    Which of the following personalities has won the prestigious Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for excellence in public administration and management sciences for 2001 recently?

a. Deepak C. Jain    b. Vijay Mahajan

c. N. R. Narayana Murthy    d. Azim H. Premji

134.    This person is the winner of Asia Business Leader' award by CNBC Asia Pacific and TNT channels recently. Identify him from the given options.

a. B. Ramalinga Raju b. S. Ramadorai    c. Nandan M. Nilekani d. Arun Jain

135.    Apparel brand Color plus' has recently been acquired by which of the following garments major? a. Raymods Ltd.    b. S. Kumars    c. Madura Garments d. None of these

136.    Which of the following represents India's final rank in the recently concluded Busan Asian Games 2002? a. 6th    b. 7th    c. 8th    d. 9th

137.    What was India's rank in the Global Competitiveness report 2002 by World Economic Forum? a. 35    b. 48    c. 57    d. 65

138.    According to a recent report by Transparency International, which of the following represents the least corrupt nation of the world?

a. Norway    b. Finland    c. Germany    d. Singapore

139.    Miss Universe 2002 event took place at which of the following places?

a. London    b. Abuja    c. San Juan    d. Caracas

140.    The UN high commissioner for human rights presently is

a. Mary Robinson    b. Sergio Vieirade Mello

c. Kevin Warwick    d. Koichiro Matsuura

141.    Which of the following banks was in the news recently as it has launched tax free bonds at seven per cent rate of interest?

a. IDBI Bank    b. State Bank of India

c. Reserve Bank of India    d. ICICI Bank

142.    UN conference on sustainable development took place at_recently.

a. Durban    b. Johannesburg    c. Rio de Janerio    d. New York

143.    Which of the following represents the number of countries in the European Union that have Euro' as their common currency?

a. 10    b. 11    c. 12    d. 13

144.    International Literacy Day' is observed every year on_throughout the world.

a. August 27    b. November 17    c. September 8    d. December 3

145.    The winner of ICC Champions Cricket Trophy held at Colombo in September 2002 was a. South Africa    b. India

c. Sri Lanka    d. India and Sri Lanka jointly

146.    Who won the men's single's title of Wimbledon 2002 tournament?

a. Pete Sampras    b. Albert Costa    c. Lleyton Hewitt    d. Marat Safin

147.    According to a survery conducted by ORG-MARG, which of the following is the most trusted brand in the year 2002?

a. Colgate    b. Lux    c. Dettol    d. Britannia

148.    The present Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is

a. 6.25 per cent    b. 5.5 per cent    c. 4.75 per cent    d. 4.5 per cent

149.    Which of the following is the name of the prepaid mobile service launched by BSNL recently? a. Cell One    b. Excel    c. Dolphin    d. Talkie

150.    Who Says Elephants Cannot Dance is the title of a book authored by the former chief of which of the following IT giants?

a. Intel    b. Microsoft    c. IBM    d. Oracle

FMS - Mock

A nswers & Explanations

Scoring table

C Area of ABCD = 2 x Area of AABC = 2\/9 x 2 x 3 x 4 77. 78. 79. 80. =12,/ m2 [Using Hero s formula, A Vs(s-a)(s-b )(s c) ] Since AABC and AACD are concurrent, AABC = x ABCD = [q cm2 AABC 66 ACxBP [if BP 1 AC] - x 6 x BP -T 2 BP = 26 Similarly, we can find that DP [if DP 1 AC] = 2V \ BD = BP + DP = 26 + 26 = 46 m 75. The readings give rise to the following diagram

Since the given number is 299, the nearest perfect square below this number is 172 = 289. The next perfect square would be 182 = 324. Therefore, the number to be added = 324 - 299 = 25. LCM(10, 15, 25) = 150; we have to find the nearest multiple of 150 that is a perfect square. Hence, the nearest such number is 900 which is six times of 150. 900 is also the square of 30. Speed of the car is twice the speed of the auto. So time taken by the car is half the time taken by the atuo. Ammar goes by car for 10 min and by auto for 30 min. Total time taken by him if he goes all the way by car 1 = 10 + (30) = 10 +15 = 25 min

Y Total area AXQY + AQZY + AKZP + Trapezium KPRL + AXLR = 8250 m2 Also BC = .-.VJab= 1 1 1 The ratio of their daily wages is 2 3 5 . 76. So the ratio of their wages for the full work is 10,12 15 2 : 3 : 5 , i e. 5 : 4 : 3.

AB BC = ~ [in AABC] tan30    J BC = V5ab BD [in ABDC] tan 60' BD BD BE + ED 73 73 rrB x + ED \/3AB = = 73 3AB=x + ED As AE = ED [Both being reflections across the pool surface] 3AB = x + AE = x + AB + x x = AB Therefore, height of the cloud patch = AB+ BE = x + x = 2x.

2log_e2 + log_e3 +1

^f 11) = ¹ + ¹ + ^x = ^fM

f |x | + f(x) = 2f(x)

Substituting the value of a from (ii) in (i), we get

r 1⁵ I r +

c^c log_ec - 2c^c c^c + c^c log_ec

logec - 2

-2 =

X

-2 =

1 + log_ec -2 - 2 log_e c = log_e c - 2 log_ec = 0 c = 1

92. We have

17=

2 + x + 5 + x + 6 + x + 8 + x + 9 + x + 11 + x + 12 + x + 14 + x +15 + 24

Page 30    FMS - Mock

THE PRINCETON REVIEW FMS SAMPLE PAPER

INSTRUCTIONS Please read these carefully before attempting the test

1.    This test is based on pattern of previous years FMS papers.

2.    There are three sections.

Section 1-Reading Comprehension & English Usage (65 questions) Section 2- Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning (35 questions) Section 3- Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency (65 questions)

3.    The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end time on the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong assessment.

4.    Please fill all the details, as asked on top of the answer sheet.

5.    Please try to maximize your attempt overall, but you need to do well in all sections.

6.    There are 4 marks for every right answer and 1 negative mark for every wrong one.

7.    There is no sectional time limit.

8.    Since it is a time constrained test and you have 2 hours, and all questions carry equal marks, please do not get stuck on any question, move fast to try and do easier ones.

9.    Please do all scratch work on paper only, no extra sheets to be used. Put all

your answers on the answer sheet.

Relax. You are competing against yourself.

Directions Q1 - 35: Read the passages that follow and answer the question that follow each of them respect to your understanding of the passage.

PASSAGE- 1

Over 1,26,000 that's the number of bank employees who have busted the myth, assiduously preserved and propagated by trade unions and their sympathies that Indians treasure job security above all else. Given the option of taking voluntary retirement, thousand of officers and clerical staff happily chose to grab the money and strike out on their own. Indeed, many public sector banks are now struggling to cope with this massive out flux of skilled professionals. In the long run though, they undoubtedly be better off for it. Public banks have long been labourintensive inefficient organizations. But they are now moving actively to reduce the man power and upgrade technology, which should improve their efficiency and bottom lines. What about the employees who opted for VRS? According to some estimates, they are now flush with Rs15,000 crore, Details are not yet available about how the money is being spent, but survey of these retirees indicate a high aversion to risk. The bulk of the windfall gains seems to be headed right back into bank vaults in the form of fixed deposits. The other favoured investments are low-risk bonds and office schemes. Several in retirees are retraining, with an eye to getting jobs in sunrise sectors like medical transcription and insurance. But very few people are willing to set their own business. That's understandable. After all, they would be reluctant to take chances with their lifetime savings. But it's also symptomatic of a larger trend .

The banks may be gloating today at the money pouring in, but it will turn into a huge liability unless they can lend it out to someone else. And that does not seem to be happening. With business confidence running low few corporate are in the mood to take on debt, despite plummeting interest rates. This is clearly bad news, since economic growth and additional job creation depends on fresh projects being constantly set up. So why do not the banks themselves actively drum up business, through, say, a massive micro-credit disbursement exercise? They won't because it's almost impossible for them to recover debts that go bad. Insolvent companies are forcibly kept open, locking up labour and capital that could be profitable deployed elsewhere. A way out may be offered by the recommendations of the advisory group on bankruptcy laws, constituted by the Reserve Bank of India. The group has called for the repeal of the Sick Industrial Company (special provisions) Act and abolition of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction. It has also suggested that a default of Rs 1 lakh should immediately invite bankruptcy proceeding and dedicated benches should be established at every high court to deal with bankruptcy issues. Enforcing these suggestions would certainly be a step forward. But care should also be taken that the new rules are not applied just to small debtors while affluence go scot-free, secure in the knowledge that no harm would befall them. Economic commentators like to point out that there are many sick industries in India but not many sick industrialists. Unless that is remedied, the financial sector and by extension, the economy can never aspire to sound health.

2.    The said conclusion can be attacked if somebody pointed out that

(1)    The actual number of employees getting VRS was only 1,24,000.

(2)    The percentage of people getting VRS who were below 50 years was very low.

(3)    Banking sector was dying sector anyway.

(4)    People left their jobs because of a fear retrenchment.

3.    Huge inflows of money pouring in for a bank is essentially (1) An asset    (2) A liability

(3) A transaction    (4) A withdrawal

4.    Banks need to lend the huge inflows to somebody else. Why?

I.    Idle money does not grow.

II.    Bank has promised interest, i.e. growth, to their depositors.

III.    It is imperative for additional jobs creation.

(1) II only (2) I and III (3) I and II (4) All I, II and III

5.    One reasons why banks won't indulge in lending out micro-credit to business is that

(1)    Business have traditionally defaulted on repayments

(2)    Interest chargeable on this count is low.

(3)    Laws don't offer sufficient protection against defaults.

(4)    Additional jobs creation is not guaranteed.

6.    The author seems to suggest that the present system of debt recovery in India unduly favours

(1)    Small-sized companies

(2)    Big-sized companies

(3)    Both small and big-sized companies

(4)    None of these

7.    The author's advocacy of the repeal of BIFR etc could be attacked on the grounds that

(1)    It will also entail frequent job destruction.

(2)    It will stop bank from lending to traditional business.

(3)    It will invite significant administrative hassles in implementation.

(4)    It will benefit the MNCs ultimately.

The 15-year-old Consumer protection Act, responsible for consumer awareness in the country, is now facing certain changes that can alter its continuing impact and operation. We all are consumers- as the buyer of recipient of any product and services, if there is any defect and deficiency in the product and services. If there is any defect and deficiency in the product purchased, or service sought for which payment has been made, the consumer is entitled to the share of appropriate compensation. The product may range from the purchase of a screw to a motorcar and the service may range from dry cleaning of a saree to travelling in a plane or construction of a house.

Under this Act various "consumer courts" have been set up in all districts of the country and an effective setup has been established at the state and national level for dealing maximum demands of compensation and appeals. Consumer courts in the districts are turned District Forums. There are now 555 District Forums operating, mostly one in each district. In Delhi, an enviable instance, as many as nine District Forums have been established to deal with a large number of cases emanating from its population. At the state level these consumer courts are known as State Commissions and at the national level there is the National Commission which has jurisdiction all over the country for entertaining original cases of high value and also for dealing with appeals coming up against the orders of State Commissions.

Monetary limits of the awardable compensation have been prescribed in the Act. Originally the limit was Rs.1 lakh for disposal of cases by District Forums, Rs. 5 to Rs.10 lakh for the State Commissions, and above Rs.10 lakh for National Commission. Within five years of operation of these courts the limits were respectively to Rs.5 lakh for District Forums and above Rs. 5 to 20 lakh for State Commissions and above Rs20 lakh for the National commission. Since then these courts have just been operating.

It is worthwhile noting how these consumer courts have provided redress to consumers. Figures of the cases disposed off by them and pending before them are showing that District Forums have collectively so far decided about 11.5 lakh cases; they have about 2.5 lakh cases and present pendency before them is about 75,000, National Commission has decided about 12,000 cases and pendency at this level including appeals and original complaints, is about 9,500.

By and large, the work performed by these consumer courts has been satisfactory. There have been suggestions and demands for effective further improvements. These remain under consideration.

A major amendment proposed is to devise limits of compensation award and to revise the jurisdiction of these courts. Districts Forums can presently deals with case involving compensation payment up to Rs 5 lakh and same is the limit for State Commissions. This limit of amount in case of District forums has been increased to Rs20 lakh and that of State Commissions to Rs1 crore. National Commission will deal only with appeals arising from decisions of State Commissions. Rising of limit from Rs5 lakh to Rs1 crore in case of State Commissions is said to be justified on the ground that only aggrieved consumers now have to travel to Delhi for filing complaint.

Another important change proposed is to enable the National Commissions as well as State Commissions to have benches which will operate at other selected places, for meeting requirements of consumers rather than the consumers having to come to Delhi or go to State headquarters with their complaints. For enabling these benches to operate, certain amendments in the Act propose to have people from the concerned ministry, out of whom half the number will be persons of "judicial background" which term describes that they will have at least ten years' experience as President of District level court or Tribunal.

Similarly, members of State Commission, which till now were only three, including the President who is a retired judge of a High Court, will now be any number which is determined by the ministry, excepting that at least half of them, as in the case of National Commission, will be persons of "judicial background"- meaning that they have at least ten years' experience as district judge. Benches of State Commission will be set up by its president with "one or two members" as the President may deem fit. Here again it appears odd that a bench of the level of the State Commission can operate at the designated place with only one or two members, of level of District Judge experience, to decide cases involving compensation up to Rs1 crore, which is prescribed to be the jurisdiction of State Commission. Both these provisions appear to be strange in the existing context.

While there may be certain doubts relating to provisions for constituting benches of National Commission and State Commissions, the proposed amendments of Consumer Act include certain very desirable provisions. One clause states that in each of the consumer court at the respective levels, cases will be decided within 90 days. This will obviate atrocious delay, which is being often caused at present. Another provision states that if an appeal is filed against any decision the appellant will have to first deposit half the amount of award compensation. Consumer courts are also proposed to be given powers to effect attachment and auction of property of a person who defaults in complying with the decision of payment of compensation. Power of a collector will also be exercisable by these courts for recovering any dues as arrears of land revenue. Punishment by imprisonment, as by judicial magistrate for default in compensation payment, will like wise be exercisable by these courts. A party will be allowed to engage legal practitioner only if the complainant has engaged one. Where necessary, consumer court will have the authority to try a case summarily.

These various provisions in the proposed amendments can obviously have far-reaching and healthy effect in expeditious redress of grievances of consumers.

8.    At present, the time taken for disposal of a case in consumer court is (1) Not too long    (2) Too short (3) Too long (4) Can't say

9.    The raising of limits (as proposed in the amendment) is justified on the grounds that it will

(1)    Be commensurate with inflation

(2)    Invite due attention of local authorities

(3)    Not bother the national level commission which petty case

(4)    Enable the applicants to settle their grievances without having to travel to far-off places

10.    The consumer protection laws at present have within their ambits

I.    manufactured products

II.    services

(1) I only    (2) II only (3) I and II (4) Either I or II

12.    As per the author, the instance of Delhi having nine district forums is

(1)    Welcome because it will deal effectively with large number of cases.

(2)    Welcome because Delhi is the capital of our country.

(3)    Not welcome because it is not wise to invest in nine courts where one can do.

(4)    Not welcome because it will create problems of jurisdiction.

13.    Which of the following prospects are not faced by a party (in the new scheme of things) that has been found 'guilty ' by consumer court?

(1)    To pay compensation

(2)    Imprisonment

(3)    Attachment of property

(4)    Debarring from electoral rights

14.    Which of the following provisions do not appear as proposed, in the passage?

(1)    Raising of monetary limits for compensation

(2)    Bond for future behavior

(3)    Deciding a time - frame in which to try the case

(4)    Summary proceedings.

Some years ago the then coach of the English football team, Glen Hoddle, found himself in the eye of a media storm. The irritant was Hoddle's gratuitous assertion in an interview that congenital disability was a function of an individual's karma in a previous life. The implication was that the disable had to learn to embrace, even cherish, their suffering as merited rather than attribute it to an arbitrary genetic predisposition.

In the righteous uproar that followed, Hoddle was pillared for holding views which were not just "weird" and "anachronistic" but also violated such sacred canons of liberal faith as equality and human dignity. Hoddle's protest that the interview contained his personal beliefs did not cut much ice owing to his eminently public status as the national coach. Faced with an unprecedented media witch-hunt, the Football Association had no option but to ask for Hoddle's head. The intriguing questions whether Hoddle's spin on the human condition had a legitimate basis in eastern spirituality" - a phrases frequently invoked by his critics falls outside the purview of what follows.

From the standpoint of this article Hoddle's fall from grace has a different meaning: It is a cautionary tale par excellence in the context of the curricular 'reforms' underway in our schools. Under the zealous direction of the learned professor, it is being strenuously asserted that value for it to be efficacious, must be at the heart of pedagogic intervention in schools. Further, that this value education, for it be efficacious, must be based on the bedrock of religion. This theme is at the very heart of the learned professor's document of vision, otherwise known as the National Curriculum Framework for school Education.

Aside from stressing the role of religion as a generator of "essential" values, the document states that religion education should not be an isolated part of school curriculum. It must be integrated with other areas of academic concern- rather described as "scholastic" and "co-scholastic" areas. Since the document is woefully short on explanatory details, one may only be surprised that religion- based value education will hence forth be integrated with- probably given primacy over- the teaching of natural and human sciences and the values inherent there in.

An old- fashioned secularist may well agonize- with good reason too -- about the normal justification of an avowedly secular way of promoting religious education with such fervor. The document, unfortunately, does not. The sole possible defence based on precedent- that the independent Indian state has for long supported religious education through institutional funding- is, strictly speaking, basis of the point. State funding for religious institutions through institutions is emphatically not the same thing as the proposal of religious education- "not education about religion", as the document very helpfully clarifies in state-run schools. For obvious reasons, however, it is not the intention here to kill an interesting debate by taking a purist tack.

The first question is: in a society that is as religiously diverse as ours-where nomenclature Hindu religion is itself a short hand for widely heterogeneous beliefs and practices- which faith would constitute the bedrock of value education? The answer may seem obvious in the light of the professor's well-known predilection in the matter, but it does not tell the full story, not in this instance. In the specific context of value education at least, the curriculum is agnostic about the claims of any particular religion.

To escape the pluralistic conundrum this poses, the document, rather ironically, resurrect an old secular ghost, which has resisted burial for the better part of 75 years and continues to haunt us when questions about religion are raised in our public life. In simple term, it the belief- indeed an article of faith- that there is a common essence which is shared by all religions.

From believers such as Gandhi to skeptics such as Nehru, not to mention their less literate intellectual and political heirs across the spectrum, this well-meaning assertion has been made so frequently and assiduously that its truth is now taken for granted. The document, not surprisingly, reiterates it as a banality: "The essence of every religion is common, only, practices differ." The implication is clear; this putative essence will inform the value education framework.

The problem is that this hoary thesis, despite being impeccable, has arisen more from the political and spiritual compulsions of those who propound it and less from an open- ended comparative appraisal of different faiths. Its veracity can be demonstrated only by subtracting from each religion what is distinctive, even valuable, about it. Plainly, unless the concept of religion is reduced to an empty moralism and even emptier theology, no two religions may be regarded as a like.

It is of course a sociological truism that all religions address a universal human need. But the substantive manner in which they do so varies very significantly indeed. Each major religion of the world is underpinned by a distinctive theology, a highly specific history and a quite unique conception of a desirable socio-political order. In the fundamental since few religions can be reconciled except at the minimalist level of a belief in a supernatural power, some conception of an afterlife, and so on.

What commonalities might then constitute the foundation of the proposal moral revolution: surely, it is difficult to ground an entire educational curriculum on such randomly chosen' universal' religious values as love and peace, honesty and truthfulness. But such is the logic of the curriculum's reduction absurdum. Even assuming that possibility of isolating such an essence exists, what moral force will it carry in the absence if any specific theology that supports it as in the case of individual religions?

Finally, to recall the poignancy of Hoddle's predicament. How shallow resolve the moral quandaries which must inevitably arise when religion-inspired values come into conflict-in the public domain -with those other values which a society upholds, say, constitutionally? Or when the values of scientific inquiry-of questioning and criticism- run counter to the unassailable truth-claims of religion? Will the spirit of science be then allowed to transcend religious dogma? Or will religious values be cast, by diktat, as being beyond the pale of critical reason?

It is morally incumbent on the learned professor that these and other questions are allowed to be religiously debated the troubled legacy of our secular education is hastily and irrevocably jettisoned.

15.    Which of the following definitely follows from the passage?

(1)    Disabilities are essentially genetic

(2)    Hoddle's assertions are not based on a sound religious dogma.

(3)    Disabled people should not lament their trouble.

(4)    Not every body buys the karma theory.

16.    Hoddle's head having to roll, implies that personal beliefs of public figures

(1)    Are essentially public beliefs

(2)    Should not be stated in public.

(3)    Have due repercussions if stated in public.

(4)    Do not have any justification.

17.    The National Curriculum Framework for School Education

I    is a controversial document.

II    Should be taken with a lot of caution.

III    Seek to cut away religion from schools; curricula.

(1) I and    (2) only II (3) II and III (4) Only I

18.    As per the passage,

I    fundamentally, all religions have the same theology.

II    There more to religion than mere morality.

(1) I only    (2) II only (3) I and II (4) Neither I nor II

19.    The belief that all religions have a common essence

I    has been propounded by many in tell in truth intellectuals.

II    May not have a should basis in truth.

(1) I only    (2) II only (3) I and II (4) Neither I nor II

20.    The "document of vision ", as mentioned in the passage,

I    asserts that religion is the basis for essential values.

II    Asserts that religion should be taught in schools albeit in an isolated manner.

(1) I only    (2) II only (3) I and II (4) Neither

The last I visited China was in 1986 in the early days of liberalization. Now, thanks to a business assignment, I could see for myself the dramatic changes of the last decade.

As my flight touched down, I saw the same old building, great monoliths that I have come to associate with Beijing. It was a different story once we entered the airport terminal. It was modern, large and spanking clean, in parts like Singapore's Changi Airport. In 20 minutes I had cleared immigration and customs, definitely more business-friendly than Indian airport. On the expressway into the city (speed limit 110 kmph) cars whizzed past, while there was barely any sigh of the once ubiquitous bicycle.

The first hurdle came at the hotel, or so I thought. The in-house services directory said I could not connect to the Internet from my hotel room. However, the friendly service representative at the plush business center downstairs arranged for me to access the Net from my room and gave me a local number to dial. This was a facility I got at every hotel I stayed in China. The connections were consistently very fast indicating large bandwidth availability, a great boon to the business traveller.

Outside, a happy surprise was the brand new subway-- sparking clean. The passengers, all local Chinese, looked well fed and clothed. There were amazing changes on the culinary front as well. On my last trip I could only eat in restaurants earmarked for tourists. Not any more, with a range of very upscale Chinese, American and Italian restaurants to choose from, I found an Indian eating joint within two blocks of the hotel, not to mention three McDonald's one Pizza Hut, one KFC and two Starbucks and several more downscale but seemingly very clean Chinese restaurants.

Could Beijing be an exception? The showcase city that attracted the West? I got my answer soon. My consulting assignment was with a large manufactures of cell phones in Hangzhou, a city of about 1.7 million in south - east China. I flew the state-owned Air China. The aviation scene in China is similar to that of India, with 8 to 10 airlines, soon to consolidate into three major airlines. The other two besides Air China are 100 percent privately owned. The quality of service on Air China is comparable to the Indian Airlines. However, the flight departed and arrived exactly on time.

Hangzhou is impressive, its airport once again exceptionally clean and well - organized. For a city of its size, Hangzhou has excellent infrastructure: large fleet of electric buses supplement the 5,000 taxis, all with radio communications and digital meters. There are over and under passes everywhere. Several hundred large new buildings and a newly built athletics stadium.

The company I am consulting with used to be 100 percent state-owned. The state has divested a majority of the shares, which are now traded at the Shanghai stock market in two forms ---one for domestic investors and the other exclusively for foreigners, like India. But unlike India, the facilities at the manufacturing site of this $1.5-billion company just took my breath away. I have been to advanced electronic manufacturing site in the US and Singapore but I was unprepared for the scale and sophistication of the operation here. Their competitors apparently have better facilities.

Just when I thought nothing could go wrong, I came upon a hurdle, language of course. For all their efforts to go global, the Chinese grasp of the English language is very poor. The business card of one of the executives described him as "Execution Vice-President" while the sign on the toilet of a train I took said, "No Occupying While Stabling ". My translator Edward, a smart youngster with a degree in English language, was the only person I could communicate with directly.

At the meeting an elaborate affair, the atmosphere was very Indian, with heavy-duty protocol and speech - making to boast, scenes I remember from my last trip. Some things never change, I suppose.

This time, though, everyone carried a cell phone. People placed their cell phones on the conference table as soon as they came in(much like folks did in the American Wild West with their guns!). While found this somewhat disconcerting, I did like their cell phone etiquette. They turned down the ring volume, and spoke very softly. Incidentally there will be over 100 million cell phones in China by end 2004(compared with around 4 million in India).

I can sense that the Chinese are very closely studying the success of Indian software industry and have every intention of surprising India in this field. While much has been written about the growth of their hardware exports, their achievements in garnering export business in software has largely been ignored China is hard at work neutralizing India's key competitive advantage of a US Fortune 500 company to move their offshore software development from China to India, but they are disinclined because of the high quality of work, lower cost and superior infrastructure in China.

Edward and I went sightseeing on the last day. We visited an absolutely stunning Buddha temple from the 4^th century founded by an Indian monk and target for demolition during the cultural evolution. Former premier Chou En-Lai intervened to save it.

Edward was eloquent on a range of topics from the economic to unification of China and Taiwan. The latter; he was certain, would be resolved, because the people of Taiwan now see difference between China and Taiwan in economic, business conditions, personal freedom, and living standards. Indeed many Taiwanese businessmen are migrating to China. Unbelievably, a business associate from Taiwan expressed similar views.

Old China shows up every now and then. The food in the cafeteria at the cell phone company was indifferently served and unappetizing. The Chinese paranoia about security can suddenly throw you off balance at the Forbidden City. The guard said a firm no to even my copy of China Daily. The Chinese are not savvy about Western concerns like pollution. Beijing itself seems swathed in a brown blanket.

But for every rewind to the past, there's fast forward to the future. China will pull out all stops for business. As Edward succinctly summed up, "You can get away with anything here as long as you have money and do not bother the government with protests and demonstrations".

21.    What is not mentioned as a characteristic of the old Chinese regime?

(1)    little concern for environment

(2)    overdoing the security

(3)    poor hospitality standards at restaurants, etc

(4)    disregard for money

22.    Which of the following are common between Indian and Chinese meeting?

I.    adherence to protocol

II.    heavy dose of speeches

(1) I only    (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II

23.    Fast internet connections indicate a

(1) dotcom revolution    (2) leap in IT-enabled services

(3) progress of economy    (4) large band width

24.    The author's good impressions about Hanfzhou were created by the

I.    cleaner at airport

II.    excellent commuting infrastructure

III.    wireless advanced communications in taxis

(1) I and II (2) II only (3) I and II (4) All, I II and III

25.    The author found a change in Beijing mainly in terms of

I.    a new expressway

II.    New, big buildings

(1) I only    (2) II only (3) Both I and II    (4) Neither I nor II

26.    Chinese optimism on the inevitability of unification with Taiwan is based upon a

(1)    Progressively reducing international interest in the matter

(2)    conducive atmosphere for sharing of option.

(3)    New round of dialogues

(4)    Similarity in both economies today

27.    India's competitive advantage in the field of software exports vis-a-vis China lies in

(1)    a vast number of Indian living in the US

(2)    her comfortable state with English language

(3)    her natural links with the US

(4)    an availability of cheap labour

28.    The multinational presence in Beijing is most visible in the form of (1) clean airport    (2) foreign brand restaurants

(3) clean roadways    (4) radio- equipped taxis

29.    The author's opinion about the punctuality of Indian Airlines flights is (1) probably not very high    (2) similar to that about China

(3) not mentioned    (4) low

30.    The author probably thought that the display of cell phones by the Chinese was a tendency to or indicator of

(1) flaunt    (2) intimidate (3) snobbery (4) affluence

31.    International companies find China a better destination than India because of

I.    higher quality

II.    better infrastructure

(1) I only    (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither

32.    Which of the following statements best sums up the passage?

(1)    China has decided to put the soul of its communist agenda on the backburner for the sake of development.

(2)    China is serious about an economic revolution, already visible in its successful efforts.

(3)    China has changed a lot in the way it way it runs its economy.

(4)    The author was very impressed with China during his visit

Last November, I organized a seminar about terrorism in aviation. In order to drive home the potential hazards to the students, we visited a large eastern U.S airport with the intention of acting like a terrorist group looking for targets of opportunity. What we discovered was, at times fascinating and at other times frightening.

In general US airports have two areas where the visitors have access: a public area with little active security measures and a more secure area in the airport-- waiting and boarding areas. The less secure areas usually contain ticket counters, baggage claim, gift shops, restaurants, and other airport services. Getting into the main areas involves going through a screening process that includes x-ray inspection of carry-on items and walking through metal detectors. Other security measures include limiting curbside parking at the terminal, securing unattended luggage, and requiring that all passengers be identified by the airlines-- by use of a picture identification. In the academic exercise, the group made several notable security observations.

Most of the trash bins in the terminal areas were set within larger concrete containers. An explosive set within one of these containers would likely be directed upward. However, in several cases there were metal and fiberglass containers, sometimes adjacent to the concrete ones; also located around the terminal.

During visit, there were numerous announcements about how unattended baggage would be collected by the airport authority. At one point, our party observed an unattended umbrella propped against a wall near one of the screening areas. The umbrella was plain in view and in close proximity to constant foot traffic. It was over 45 minutes before an airport staff member removed the umbrella. Most areas of the terminal were designed such that it was difficult to leave a bag unattended in heavily travelled areas of the terminal without it being seen.

Our group specifically observed custodial staff going about their duties to see they were securityconscious. We were impressed with their thoroughness. Many hidden places such as bathroom trash containers, bathrooms stalls, and areas behind furniture or machinery were visually checked by the custodial staff. At one point, different members of our group sat or stood in areas directly behind the staff at one security checkpoint to observe the x- ray monitor and general security procedures. Two females from our group were able to observe for as long as they wanted and were not approached by any security staff. A male member of our group, who is also a police captain, was told to move along soon after he arrived.

Three of our party checked-in for flights that too on different airlines .At the time, all passengers were supposed to be identified with a picture identification, I was never asked for mine, another person used an ID with a name that did not match that on her ticket, and the third was asked for ID, but did not open up an oddly shaped package even after being asked by a grate agent about its contents.

In general, we were quite impressed with the level of security. The most worrisome aspects of what we saw were that the effectiveness of active and passive security measures varied greatly, and that a group of people unschooled in the ways of terrorism could very quickly discover numerous opportunities for committing mayhem without being detected.

33.    Choose the meaning closest to "curb side" in the text.

(1) on the side walk    (2) behind the terminal

(3) in front of the terminal    (4) next to the sidewalk

34.    Choose the meaning closet to "unschooled" in the text.

(1) expert    (2) inexpert (3) stupid    (4) intelligent

35.    Which statement is correct?

(1)    Ticket countries are more secure than boarding areas.

(2)    Boarding areas are securer than ticket counters.

(3)    Boarding areas are less than ticket counters.

(4)    Boarding areas are more than ticket counters.

Directions Q. 36 - 43: Given below are sets of six sentences that form part of a paragraph. The first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are at their right places. Arrange P, Q, R and S, the four sentences so that the given sentences constitute a coherent paragraph.

36.    S1. In other words, grammar grows and changes, and there is no such thing

as correct use of English for the past, the present and the future.

P. "The doors is broken".

Q. Yet this would have been correct in Shakespeare's time R. Today, only an uneducated person would say," my arm is broken".

S.    For example, in Shakespeare's play Hamlet, there is a line.

S6. All the words that man has invented are divided into eight classes, which are called parts of speech.

(1) PSQR    (2) QPSR    (3) RSPQ    (4) SPRQ

37.    S1.    The Bhagvadgita recognizes the nature of man and the needs of man.

P.    All these three aspects continue the nature of man.

Q.    It shows how the human being is a rational one, an ethical one and a spiritual one.

R.    More than all, it must be a spiritual experience.

S.    Nothing can give fulfillment unless it satisfies his reason and his ethical conscience.

S6.    A man who does not harmonies them, is not truly human.

(1) PSQR    (2) PSRQ    (3) QSRP    (4) RSPQ

38.    S1. Silence is unnatural to man.

P. even his conversation is in great measure a desperate attempt to prevent a dreadful silence.

Q. In the interval he does all he can to make a noise in the world.

R. There are few things of which he stands in more fear than of the absence of noise S.    He being life with a cry and ends it in stillness.

S6. He knows that ninety-nine percent of human conversation means no more than the buzzing of a fly, but he longs to join in the buzz and to prove that he is a man and not a waxwork figure.

(1) PQRD (2) PRQS    (3) QPRS    (4) SQRP

39.    S1. During the Middle Ages the production of cloth was divided amongst a number

of associations of skilled works who performed different operations required in its production.

P. But the association of skilled workers lacked capital to butt it.

Q. Consequently, he began to assume the role of the employer.

R. With the mechanization of these operations, capital became necessary for economic production.

S.    The banker, therefore stepped in to finance the industrialization of these

operations.

S6. This was one of the reasons why the industry flourished in such rich countries as Flanders, Italy and Britain.

(1) PRQS    (2) PRSQ    (3) RPQS    (4) RPSQ

40.    S1.    He could not rise.

P.    All at once, in the distance, he heard an elephant trumpet.

Q.    He tried again with all his might, but to no use.

R.    The next moment he was on his feet

S.    He stepped into the river.

S6.    It was colder than usual.

(1) PQSR    (2) PRQS    (3) QPRS    (4) QPSR

41.    S1. An elderly lady suddenly became blind.

P. The doctor called daily and every time he took away some of her furniture he liked.

Q. At last, she was cured and the doctor demand his fee.

R. She agreed to pay a large fee to the doctor who would cure her.

S.    On being refused, wanted to know the reason.

S6. The lady said that she had not been properly cured because she could no see her furniture.

(1) PQRS    (2) QPSR    (3) RQPS    (4) RSPQ

42.    S1. A certain young man was entrusted to the care of a teacher.

P. This dullard will come to grief if I send him away without a single lesson, thought the teacher.

Q. He was so dull of mind that he could not, even in three months' time, learn as much as a single lesson.

R. The young man came to ask the teacher's permission to go home.

S.    It's my business to provide a good education to my pupils, get go home.

S6. The teacher asked him to wait.

(1) PSQR    (2) QPSR    (3) RQPS    (4) SRQP

43.    S1. American private lives may seem shallow.

P. Students would walk away with books they had not paid for.

Q. A Chinese journalist, commented on a curious institution: the library.

R. Their public morality, however, impressed visions.

S.    But in general they returned them.

S6. This would not happen in China them.

(1) PSQR    (2) QPSR    (3) RPSQ    (4) RQPS

Directions Q. 44 - 48: The sentences given below have none, one or more errors. The errors can be

of any type: they can be one of spelling or grammar or incorrect usage of words etc. Count the

number of errors. If the sentence has

Only one error mark (1);    Only two errors, mark (2);

More than two errors, mark (3); and No error, mark (4).

44.    A set of material presented in the body of this introductory course is designed to exposed the learned to the basis ingredients of written English and prepare him for continued learning in the language.

45.    We have tried to make this exercise relevant to the present and (the possible) future of need of the learner.

46.    The resent interest in discourse analyses has made it possible to study more systematically the creative use of language in poetry.

47.    Dear Jolly, weaving this opportunities, I send my love to you and Paul.

48.    Theirs been a lot of smog in this year and we can expect a worse winter next year.

49.    Ones warned to ones language when ones angry.

50.    The arrogant fellow, sitting at the backside of the taxi, rudely ordered the driver to turn to the side.

51.    It is said that the water-closet (lavatory) came to be called ;you ' when a prankster shuffle all the name cards on the doors of a house and the name of a young woman called ;you ' ended upon the lavatory door.

52.    After his father's death Gaurav had to finally address himself to business of earning his own living.

53.    Ram 's father threatened that he would throw him out of the house and disinherit him if he dared to marry beneath himself.

Directions Q. 54 - 55: In each sentences below, there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence some pairs of words are given which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Pick out he most appropriate pair to fill in the blanks in the same order, to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

54.    What ..... one is the total absence of a coherent programme either on the part of the

ruling or the opposition party to give ....to the poverty-stricken people that something will be done to improve their condition.

(1) humiliates, promise    (2) frightens, hint

(3) astounds, feeling    (4) shakes, notion

55.    Many of us who.....rational-emotive therapy are.. .tense, angry or depressed.

(1) seek, sometimes    (2) follow, scarcely

(3) perform, usually    (4) practice, frequently

Directions Q. 56 - 57: In each the following questions, a related pairs of words or phrases is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best describes a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

56.    MODERATOR: DEBATE::

(1) legislator: election    (2) chef: banquet

(3) auditor: lecture    (4) umpire: game

57.    DELIRIUM: DISORIENTATION::

(1) paralysis: immobility    (2) anorexia: pain

(3) insomnia: fretfulness    (4) rash: vaccination

Directions Q. 58 - 62: Sometimes we conclude about general characteristics of a phenomenon by studying or analyzing a particular phenomenon, (For example, samplers ask 5000 voters and conclude which party will win.)

Below we are giving such inductive arguments. The generalization is followed by a particular statement. You have to find out whether the numbered particular statement confirms, disconfirms, or is irrelevant to the generalization. Read each of the questions below and answer accordingly.

58.    Generalization: Laws that the amount of money that can be spent in political campaigns usually help incumbents.

In the 1970s, campaign reform laws were passed that limited the amount of money that could be spent in a political campaign. In the time that has elapsed the passage of these laws, the percentage of incumbents who have won reelection has increased.

What type of support does statement (1) provide for this generalization?

(1) Confirms (2) Disconfirms (3) Irrelevant (4) None of these

59.    Generalization: Predatory animals have eyes in the front of their heads, with overlapping visual fields.

(1)    All animals have eyes in the front of their heads.

(2)    Horses have eyes on the sides of their heads, with visual fields that do not overlap.

What type of support does statement (1) provide for this generalization?

(1) Confirms (2) Disconfirms (3) Irrelevant (4) Can't say

60.    Generalization: Predatory animals have eyes in the front of their heads, with overlapping visual fields.

(1)    All animals have eyes in the front of their heads.

(2)    Horses have eyes on the sides of their heads, with visual fields that do not overlap.

What type of support does statement (2) provide for this generalization?

(1) Confirms (2) Disconfirms (3) Irrelevant (4) Can't say

61.    Generalization: Professors with tenure don't work as hard as professors without tenure.

(1)    The possibility of losing one's job is an incentive to work hard.

(2)    Professors Smith, who is tenured, works 14 hours a day.

What type of support does statement (1) provide for this generalization?

(1) Confirms (2) Disconfirms (3) Irrelevant (4) None of these

62.    Generalization: Professors with tenure don't work as hard as professors without tenure.

(1)    The possibility of losing one's job is an incentive to work hard.

(2)    Professors Smith, who is tenured, works 14 hours a day.

What type of support does statement provide for this generalization?

(1) Confirms (2) Disconfirms (3) Irrelevant (4) None of these

Directions Q. 63 - 65: In each the following questions, a word is followed by four sets of words or. Select the pair that best describes a relationship opposite to that expressed in the original pair.

63.cavil

(1)flexible

(2)    commend

(3)complain

(4)    carp

64.limber

(1)stiff

(2)lissome

(3)agile

(4)hard

65.ungainly

(1)graceful

(2)awkward

(3)clumsy

(4)mean

1.    A, B and C secured 45% 50% and 60% marks respectively in Biology. D's marks in Biology are 10 more than A's marks and 20 less than C's marks. Find out the total marks of the four students.

A.    For all the students, total marks allotted for Biology is 800.

B.    Total of D's and A's marks is 190.

C.    C has obtained 120 marks.

(1)    A and B are sufficient

(2)    Only C is sufficient

(3)    Either of A, B or C is sufficient

(4)    All A, B and C even together are not sufficient.

2.    The area of a rectangle and a square are equal. Find the side of the square.

A.    The length of the rectangle is 24 cm.

B.    The ratio of the length and breadth of the rectangle is 2 : 1%.

C.    The breadth of the rectangle is 15 cm.

(1)    A and B are sufficient

(2)    C and A are sufficient

(3)    B and C are sufficient

(4)    Any two of the statements A, B and C are sufficient

3.    Find the single value of an integer 'a'

A. a² < 26.01    B. a < 4    C. a² > 9.61

(1)    All even together are not sufficient

(2)    All together are necessary

(3)    A and C are sufficient

(4)    A and B are sufficient

4.    Find the length of a carpet which covers the floor of a rectangular hall.

A.    The length of the hall is 24 m.

B.    The width of the carpet is 1.5 m.

C.    The area of the hall is 372 sq. m.

(1)    Only A and B together are sufficient

(2)    Only A and C together are sufficient

(3)    Only B and C together are sufficient

(4)    Any two of A, B and C are sufficient

5.    The ratio of the ages of Javed and Akhtar is 6 : 11. Find out the ratio of their ages 5 years ago.

A.    The difference of their ages is 25 years.

B.    The difference of their ages after 5 yrs will be 25 yrs.

C.    The sum of their age is 85 yrs.

Questions 6 to 10: Population living on less than $ 1 per day and headed index in developing countries, 1987, 1990 and 1998

6.    For Eastern Europe and Central Asia, what percentage of the population was covered by the three surveys together?

(1) 81.7    (2) 80.1    (3) 44.5    (4) Cannot be determined

7.    For China, what was the percentage decrease in the number of people living on less than $1 per day between 1987 and 1998?

(1) Can't be determined (2) 32.45    (3) 29.66    (4) 28.35

8.    If Latin America and the Carribean had populations of 200,210 and 215 million respectively in

987, 1990 and 1998, the average poverty ratio (defined as the total number of people living below $1 a day to the total population) for this region for the three years is:

(1) 0.3177    (2) 0.3452 (3) 0.2966 (4) 0.3255

9.    In 1998, for the countries and regions surveyed, what percentage of the population living below S 1 per day were in China?

(1) 19.17    (2) 18.17    (3) 17.79    (4) 18.52

10.    For the countries considered for the survey, what is the maximum possible expenditure per day of all the people living on less than $ 1 per day in 1990?

(1) Can't be determined    (2) $ 1276.4 million

(3) $915.9 million    (4) None of these

Questions 11 to 14: The bar chart given below provides information about the number of seats contested and number of seats won b\/ a national party in the Indian parliamentary elections in each of the yeas between 1980 and 2000.

Performance of a national party in Indian Parliamentary Election

F=a- 2=7!

1980 1984 1989 1991 1996 1998 2000

11.    If the total seats in the parliament was 529, how many of the elections did the party get a two-

thirds majority?

(1) 3 years    (2) 2 years (3) 4 years (4) 1 year

12.    In how many of the elections did the party have to seek external support to form a government, assuming that the party sought external support whenever it did not win more than 50% of the seats in the parliament? The parliament has 529 seats.

(1) Four    (2) Three    (3) Two    (4) None of these

13.    In which of the elections did the party witness the maximum % change in the number of seats it won over the previous election?

(1) 1989    (2) 1998    (3) 1991    (4) (1)&(2)

14.    How much % vote did the party get in the 1996 elections?

(1) 42.31%    (2) 16.98% (3) 48.53% (4) None of these

Questions 15 to 19: Use this additional information which provides statistics about the voting population in a country and votes secured by the national party during the above mentioned election

-% population eligible to vote % of voter turnout % votes secured by a party

15.    If the population in the country in the year 1989 was 800 mn, how many million votes did the party secure in this election?

(1) 159.84    (2) 360    (3) 266.4    (4) None of these

16.    If the population increased by 12% between the year 1984 and 1989, what was the % increase in the % of population that is eligible to vote in the election?

(1) 10.24%    (2) 12%    (3) M.64% (4) 15.50%

17.    Between 1996 and 1998, the number of people eligible to vote increased by 10% What was the % increase in population between 1996 and 1998?

(1) 6.28%    (2) 4.4%    (3) 3.28%    (4) Cannot be determined

18.    If in the year 1984, if for even additional 3% of the votes polled for the party meant the party get to have 450 seats in the parliament if the overall population of the country was 800 million in that year?

(1) 52.25 mn    (2) 15.43 mn (3) Cannot be determined    (4) None of

these

19.    Which of the following is true?

(1)    The largest % of votes were polled to the above party in the 1988 election.

(2)A    higher % of votes to the party in a particular election does not have a direct correlation to the number of seats won by the party in the election.

(3)    In four of the election, the number of seats won by the party increased over the previous election.

(4)    None of these.

Directions 20 -26: The following pie charts give the percentage distribution of different types of employees in different departments, A, B, C, D and E.

Chart A: Percentage of employees in X Corporation in the year 1999 (Total number of employees: 18,000)

D 20%

20%

20.    What was the difference in total number of people in department A in 1999 and 2000?

(1) 840    (2) 400    (3) 440    (4) 240

21.    In the case of which department was there a maximum variation between 1999 and 2000?

(1) E    (2) B    (3) D    (4) A

22.    If 300 employees left in department B at the end of 1999, how many people joined in this department in 2000?

(1) 340    (2) 460    (3) 980    (4) 1360

23.    The number of employees in department D in 2000 is how many times the number of employees in department E in 1999?

(1) 3.5    (2) 2.8    (3) 2.33    (4) 1.77

24.    What is the percentage increase in the number of employees in department C in 19992000?

(1) 2%    (2) 2.34%    (3) 23.45%    (4) None of these

25.    If the average monthly salary of employees in department A in 1999 was Rs 4,000, what was the annual salary bill for department A in 1999?

(1) Rs 19 lakh    (2) Rs 19 crore (3) Rs 22 crore    (4) Rs 22 lakh

26. If the average salary for the whole company remained same in 1999 and 2000 at the level of Rs.5,000 per month, what was the percentage increase in the salary bill for the company in the two years?

(1) 4%    (2) 8%    (3) 9%    (4) 11%

Directions: 27 to 31are based on the following graph:

FOREIGN TRADE (in billion dollars)

........................1 I I I

27. In which year was the trade deficit greatest? (1) 87-88    (2) 88-89

28. Export earning in 90-91 is how many percent of imports in 91-92? (1) 82    (2) 85    (3) 92

29.    In how many years was the trade deficit less than the trade deficit in the succeeding year?

(1) 1    (2) 2    (3) 3    (4) 4

30.    In the last three years the total export earnings have accounted for how many percent of the value of the imports?

(1) 80    (2) 83    (3) 95    (4) 89

31. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the graph?

I.    In all the years shown in graph, the trade deficit in less than the export earning.

II.    Export earnings increased in every year between 89-90 and 91-92.

III.    In all the years shown in the graph, the earning by exports is less than the expenditure on imports in the preceding year.

(1) I only    (2) II only    (3) III only    (4) I and III only

Directions 32 to 35 are based on the graph given below: Solubility - Temperature relationships for various salts. (The Y-axis denotes Solubility (kg/litres of water)

32.    Which of the following salts has greatest solubility?

(1)    Potassium Chlorate at 80⁰C.

(2)    Potassium Chloride at 35⁰C.

(3)    Potassium Nitrate at 39⁰C.

(4)    Sodium Chloride at 85⁰C.

33.    Approximately, how many kg of Potassium Nitrate can be dissolved in 10 litres of water at 30⁰C?

(1) 0.04    (2) 0.4    (3) 4    (4) 0.35

34.    By what % is the solubility of Potassium Chlorate in water increased as the water is heated from 30⁰C to 80⁰C?

(1) 100    (2) 200    (3) 250    (4) 300

35. If 1 mole of Potassium Chloride weighs 0.7456 kg, approximately, how many moles of Potassium Chloride can be dissolved in 100 litres of water at 36⁰C?

(1) 700    (2) 650    (3) 480    (4) 540

1 If x = 2 + 2 ³ +2³ , find the value of x ³ - 6 x 2 + 6 x

(1) 1    (2) 2    (3) 4    (4) cannot be determined

2.    Find the value of p and q such that the equation x² + px + q = 0 has 5 +3i as a root, where

i=Vn

(1) p = 10, q= 34    (2) p =-10, q =-34

(3) p =-10, q =34    (4) None of these

3.    Find the remainder when 2⁹³ is divided by 7

(1) 1    (2) 2    (3) 4    (4) 6

1 1    a² ? b²

4.    If a2 ? ? 4-, Find 3 ? _T

b2 9    a² ? b²

(1) 3/5    (2) 2/5    (3) -2/5    (4)-13/5

5.    Which of the following is the highest?

(1) 12² +9² (2) 13² +8² (3) 14² + 7² (4) 15² +6²

6.    A, B and C are three angles of a triangle. Then the maximum value of Sin A + Sin B + Sin C is (1) 2 ? 3    (2) 3 ? 3    (3) 3 ? 3/2    (4) 3/2

7.    Which of the following numbers is not a sum of two prime numbers?

(1) 78    (2) 88    (3) 51    (4) 60

8.    N = 10x +y, where x and y are single-digit natural numbers. To find N, which of the following information's is/are necessary/sufficient?

Y is a multiple of 3 and x is a multiple of 2 N is a prime Number.

N is a perfect square.

(1) only A and B together    (2) only B and C together

(3) only A and C together    (4) All even together are not sufficient

9.    x is an even, y is an odd and Z is a prime number. Someone is asked to find the values of x, y and z such that f xyz is an integer. Identify the correct alternative.

(1)    There is no such value set of (x, y, z).

(2)    There exist such sets of (x, y, z) only when z = 2

(3)    There exist many sets of (x, y, z) such that xyz is even

(4)    There exist only one set of (x, y, z).0

10 In a tractor there are four type of wheels. According to their positions, we call them T1 , T2, T3 and T4 wheels. When the tractor move for 36 feet, T1 makes 3 more revolutions than T2, T2 makes 3 more revolutions than T3, T3 makes 2 more revolutions than T4, T1 makes 8 more revolutions than T4. Find the ratio of the radii of wheels T1, T2, T3 and T4 (1) 3:4:6:9    (2) 3:4:5:9    (3) 3:4:7:9    (4) Data inadequate

12.    ABC is a three-digit number in which A, B and C are three different prime digits. The number formed by the first two digits, i.e. AB and the numbers formed by the last two, i.e. BC, are also prime numbers. Find the sum of the digits of the number.

(1) 12    (2) 15    (3) 21 or 15 (4) None of these

13.    What units digits exist in the product of all prime numbers between 10 and 30?

(1) 5    (2) 4    (3) 3    (4) 2

14.    In a survey of political preference, 78% of those asked were in favour of at least one of the proposal I, II and III 50% of those asked favoured proposal I, 30 % favoured II proposal, and 20 % favoured proposal III, If 5 % favoured all the three proposals, what % of those asked favoured more than one of the three proposals?

(1) 10    (2) 12    (3) 17,    (4) 22

15.    xyzw is a four digit number. When reverse of this number, i.e. wzyx is subtracted from it , which of the following does not represent answer?

(1) 999(x-w)+90(y-z)    (2) 999(x-w) +99(y-z)

(3) 9{111(x-w) + 10y -10z}    (4) 9(111x -10z) - 9(111w -19y)

16.    In the square x^-1, x², x³, x⁴, x⁵, x⁶, x⁷ the average of first three numbers is 13 and that of first four numbers is 30. Find the last number of the sequence.

(1) 128    (2) 8384    (3) 2187    (4) 729

Directions Q. 17- 19: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A car has two engines, A and B. a computer controls them. The computer that control their duty can be fed with four type of instructions, as explained below:

Instruction type Explanations of the instructions

W( A, t)    Start engine 'A' and operate it for 't' hours.

T(A,B)    The job is being transferred from A to B

J(A,B)    A is instructed to join with engine B. that is , now both engines will work

together.

S(A)    Stop engine A while B continues working.

When engine A works the speed of the car is 80 km/hr and fuel consumption is 10km/liter. When engine B works the speed of the car is 60km/hr and fuel consumption is 8km/liter. When hills come, both the engines are instructed to work together. In that case, the speed becomes 120 km/hr but fuel consumption remains the same.

17.    A set of five instructions is fed so that the car can cover a distance of 1700 km in 20 hrs. The sequence of first four instructions is W(A, 10), T(A , B) W(B, 5) , J(A,B) . Find the fuel consumed by the car

(1) 250 liters (2) 252 liters (3) 252.5 liters (4) None of these

18.    A set of five instructions is fed in the computer. The first four instructions in the sequence are W (A, 5), T (A, B) W (B, 5), T (B, A). Find the fifth instructions so that car covers a distance of 1020 km

(1) W (A, 5) (2) W (A, 4) (3) W (A, 3) (4) None of these

19 Another set of five instructions is fed in the computer so that the car can cover a distance of 1000 km using 139 liters of oil. The third instructions is missing from the sequence of instructions:

1^st instructions: W (B, 6)

2^nd instructions: J (A, B)

3^rd instructions:---------

4^th instructions: S (B)

5^th instructions: W (A, B)

Find the 3^rd instructions.

(1) W(A&B, (2) (2) W(A&B,(1) (3) W(A&B , (3)

Directions Q. 20-21: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given

D

B C

below.

In a rectangular field ABCD, there is only one B, A cemented is path is made along the lines BC, CA, AD, and DB. A person enters the field and start walking along the route BC -CA-AD-DB. After two hours he calculates that he covered total 2560 meters. He could not count number of rounds but he was sure that it was more than 6 but less than 10

If the path BC is 60 m long then find the area of the field.

(1) 6000 sqm (2) 4900 sqm (3) 4400 sqm. (4) Can't be determined

After first round, he takes rest for 2 minutes. After each successive round his period of rest increases by 2 minutes. Find his speed in meters per minute.

Find the remainder when 43³³ - 23³³ is divided by 5.

(1) Zero.    (2) 5    (3) 10    (4) 15

A football is made of regular hexagonal pieces of leather. Each side of the hexagonal piece is 2 inches. If the side of the hexagonal are increased by 50 %, what is the ratio of the volume of water displaced by the new and the old football if they are sunk into a water tub?

(1) 3:2    (2) 9:4    (3) 27: 16    (4) None of these

Direction Q. 24 - 27: The following questions are based on graphs of straight lines plotted on x-y axes.

All the graphs represent the straight lines ax + by +c = 0 Mark choice (1) if a> 0, b>0 and c> 0 Mark choice (2) if a> 0, b<0 and c> 0

Y

Mark choice (3) if a> 0, b>0 and c = 0.

Mark choice (4) if none of the above conditions apply.

O

Y

Y

28.    A man has to invite six of his friends on his birthday for dinner. He can send invitations by post, by phone or by his servant. In how many ways can he send invitations to his friends so that each of his friends gets only one invitation?

(1) 120    (2) 720    (3) 729    (4) 216

Directions Q. 29 - 30: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

We celebrate four festivals Holi, Dussehera, Diwali and New Year in our colony on community level in which each family contributes some money according to its capacity. In my annual budget I fixed an amount to contribute in these festivals. According to the level of expense in organizing these festivals, I decided to contribute in the following manner.

For Holi, I fixed Rs. 2 more than half of the amount which I fixed for all the festival. For Dussehra, I fixed Rs. 4 more than half of the amount left. For Diwali, I fixed Rs. 6 more than half of the amount left. And finally, Rs. 11 is left for New Year Contributions.

29.    What amount was fixed for Diwali?

(1) Rs. 18    (2) Rs. 20    (3) Rs. 23    (4) Rs. 42

30.    What amount did I fix for contribution in all four festivals?

(1) Rs. 156 (2) Rs. 166 (3) Rs. 176 (4) None of these

31.    If 0 < x>9, y> 10, 9<z<10, 0 <a<3, b>4, 3<c<4, which of the following is / are not true?

A ax < cz < by

B abc < -Jxyz

C    (x + y + z) > (a + b + c)

(1) All of A, B, and C    (2) only B,

(3) only C    (4) only Band C

32.    A single Badminton tournament is held in which 20 men participate. It is a knockout tournament, a player is eliminated as soon as he loses a match. How many matches should be played in the entire tournament?

(1) 20    20 19    (3) 10    (4) None of these

33.    A man took a loan of Rs. 1200 on a flat rate of 5% per amount for 40 years. According to the terms, he has to pay the amount in 40 annual installments, which are in arithmetic progression. When 30 installment are paid, he dies, leaving one- third of the debt unpaid. Find the value (in Rs.) of the last installment.

(1) 120    (2) 124    (3) 129    (4) 134

₃₄.    ₂^log21 ? ₃^log32 ? ₄^log43 ?..........n^{logn (n -1)}

find the some of the above series for n = 100

(1) 4950    (2) 5050    (3) log100 ⁽⁵⁰⁵⁰⁾ (4) None of these

35.    ?x ? y?¹¹?ⁿC_Qxⁿ? ⁿxⁿ ' ¹y? ⁿCxⁿ ' ²y² ? .........? ⁿC yⁿwhen is positive integer, for

_n    n!

any other positive integer r ? n, C ? - and n! = 1.2 ... (n-1).n.

^r r! (n ? r)!

for n= 6 find the term in the expansions of (x + 1/x)ⁿ which is independent of x .

(1) 15    (2) 20    (3) 6    (4) None of these

A person deposits some amount regularly in a nationalized and private bank. The rate of interest is compounded every two month in both the banks. The following chart shows the amount and time of deposits made by the person.

Nationalised Bank Private Bank

1 Jan, 2001 3000    4000

1 Mar, 2001 2000    2000

1May,    4000    5000