All India Management Association (AIMA) 2009 M.B.A Marketing Management Business Economics II 08 - Question Paper

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Question Paper

Managerial Effectiveness - I (MB1A3): January 2009

 Answer all 100 questions.

 Each question carries one mark.

1. Reports are used as business tools. There are various types of reports. Which of the following is/are true regarding

informational reports?

I. Informational reports present attempts to solve problems.

II. Examples are scientific research, feasibility reports, and real-estate appraisals.

III. Informational reports carry objective information from one area of an organization to another.

(a) Only (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

2. Reports have been classified in numerous ways. Which of the following is/are true regarding periodic reports?

I. They are issued on regular scheduled dates.

II. They are generally downward directed.

III. They serve management control.

IV. Preprinted forms and computer-generated data contribute to diversity of periodic reports.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (III) above

(d) (II), (III) and (IV) above

(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.

3. Outlining is the process of identifying the ideas and arranging them in right sequence. Which of the following is/are

the benefits derived from outlining to the reader?

I. The message is more accurate and brief.

II. The relationships among ideas are easier to distinguish and remember.

III. Facilitates emphasis and de-emphasis.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) Both (II) and (III) above.

4. Understanding the audience is often a challenging task. It requires the cultivation of reader oriented attitude. In order

to see a situation from readers point of view, writer must focus on relevant information about the reader. Which of

the following is not the factor to be considered by the writer about the readers?

(a) Age

(b) Economic level

(d) Needs of the reader

(e) Culture.

5. A process of communication consists of chain of events that are broken into various steps. In the first step of the

communication process,

(a) The sender decides what to say

(b) The sender has an idea

(d) The sender transmits the message

(e) The sender decides how to encode the message.

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6. The chief advantage of oral communication is

(a) The ability to plan and control the message

(b) The opportunity to meet an audiences information needs

(d) The opportunity for immediate feedback

(e) The opportunity to have control over the audience.

7. While sailing through her software presentation to the new employees, Jill noticed a stony glaze on the eyes of some

listeners. She then slowed down, reviewed the main points and paused to encourage questions. Jill was striving to

overcome communication barriers by

(a) Questioning her assumptions, biases, and prejudices

(b) Improving her language and listening skills

(d) Reducing physical distractions

(e) Showing her leadership skills.

8. There are many ways in which organizational communication flows. In which of the following, communication

flows between the units or individuals of the same hierarchical level?

(a) Lateral communication

(b) Upward communication

(d) Informal communication

(e) Grapevine.

9. Although each communication situation is unique, there are some basic methods for dealing with communication

barriers. Which of the following is not a method of dealing with communication barrier?

(a) Know your subject

(b) Focus on the purpose

(d) Be organized

(e) Know your audience.

10. How a writer can achieve audience-oriented writing to convey his message effectively?

(a) By organizing the message convenient to readers

(b) By examining the message from the other persons point of view

(d) By taking feedback from the readers

(e) By being empathetic towards the reader.

11. Which of the following indicates the best way to go about improving nonverbal communication skills?

I. If a nonverbal message contradicts a verbal one, ask questions to gain additional clues.

II. Watch facial expressions and body language to understand both the verbal and nonverbal messages being

delivered.

III. Beware of interpreting nonverbal messages when you dont understand a situation or culture.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

12. Which of the following is true regarding non-verbal communication?

(a) It is optional

(b) It is compulsory

(d) It is unintentional

(e) It is deliberate.

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13. Mr. Vasant works in a noisy office where conversations, printing sounds, and air-conditioning noises mingle. Yet he

manages to hear the beep of the fax machine two desks away, indicating that a fax message is about to be

transmitted. In which stage of listening process is Mr. Vasant in?

(a) Discriminative listening

(b) Comprehensive listening

(d) Active listening

(e) Passive listening.

14. Nonverbal signals are considered to have more impact in conveying meaning than verbal content. In response to an

idea Pete states during a meeting, Andrew makes a thumbs up gesture. Andrews action functions to

(a) Control and regulate the communication taking place

(b) Contradict Petes expressed idea

(d) Indicate that the idea is offensive

(e) Indicate to keep quite.

15. Which of the following refers to the rising or falling inflection that tells whether a group of words is a question or a

statement, whether the speaker is uncertain or confident, or whether a statement is sarcastic or sincere?

(a) Vocal characteristics

(b) Voice pitch

(d) Vocal qualifiers

(e) Rhythm.

16. People with which of the following poor voice qualities drop word endings, slur their speech, or do not speak

clearly?

(a) Rhythm

(b) Enunciation

(d) Rate of speech

(e) Voice qualifier.

17. People often put an invisible boundary between themselves and others. This is called the personal feature space.

What is the zone, which is within the radius of 18 inches around a person and is reserved for close relations and

friends?

(a) Intimate zone

(b) Personal zone

(d) Public zone

(e) Closed zone.

18. Human beings communicate a lot through body movements and facial expressions. Which of the following portrays

confident, anxiety, fear, aggressiveness and a host of other emotions?

(a) Posture

(b) Gesture

(d) Proxemics

(e) Illustrators.

19. Kinesics is the study of body movements and facial expressions. When you tell someone, Come, sit in this chair,

and accompany it by a nod of the head or a wave of the hand, which of the following types of kinesics it appears to

be?

(a) Emblems

(b) Adaptors

(d) Regulators

(e) Facial expressions.

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20. Three people were travelling in a train, two of them were software engineers from different firms, while the third

passenger is a principal in an intermediate school. The two software engineers soon started discussing their jobs.

The principal was not interested to listen to the software engineers because he hardly understood their talk and kept

looking out of window to pass his time. The principal of intermediate school was affected by which of the following

barriers to effective listening?

(a) Physiological barriers

(b) Environmental barriers

(d) Poor listening habits

(e) Lack of common experiences.

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a bad listener?

(a) Tends to enter into arguments

(b) Is distracted easily

(d) Listens for central themes

(e) Tunes out if delivery is poor.

22. There are several barriers to effective listening. Which of the following is not a barrier to effective listening due to

difference in sender and receiver?

(a) Education

(b) Age

(d) Interruptions

(e) Background.

23. When faced with a conflict, different people respond in different ways. Accommodating approach to manage

conflict is the best option

(a) When you need time to gather facts or think about a situation

(b) When you perceive that you have no chance of satisfying your concerns

(d) When you have to respond quickly and decisively

(e) When a temporary settlement is needed.

24. Which of the following strategies for defusing and redefining a conflict is to make sure everyone hears the same

message?

(a) Agree

(b) Refocus

(d) Restate

(e) Compliment.

25. While unmanaged or badly managed conflict damages relationships, managed conflicts can lead to creative

solutions, greater job satisfaction and better relationships. Avoiding approach for managing conflict is/are more

useful in which of the following situation(s)?

I. When it is advisable to allow emotions to settle.

II. When a quick solution is the need of the hour.

III. When the potential damage of confronting the conflict outweighs the benefit of resolution.

IV. When you have to announce an unpopular decision.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (III) above

(d) (I), (II) and (III) above

(e) (I), (II) and (IV) above.

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26. In todays business world the success of an organization to a great extent depends on which of the following skills

of the workforce to communicate with one another and how well they coordinate within the group?

(a) Risk-taking abilities

(b) Interpersonal skills

(d) Cleverness

(e) Writing abilities.

27. Different people respond in different ways, when faced with a conflict. There are different approaches to manage

conflict. Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding compromising approach?

I. It generates ill will that is costly and unpleasant.

II. It focuses on satisfying both parties to the greatest degree.

III. It focuses away from the conflict altogether.

IV. It is cooperative in nature.

(a) Only (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above

(d) (I), (II) and (III) above

(e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.

28. While praise is always a pleasure to give and receive, there are situations where you must grapple with something

not quite so pleasant - criticism. Which of the following is/are the aspects to be taken care of for constructive

criticism?

I. Understand why you are making a critical remark.

II. Try to understand the other persons perspective.

III. Avoid critical overload.

IV. Sound judgmental.

(a) Only (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above

(d) (I), (II) and (III) above

(e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.

29. Which of the following is not a good strategy for overcoming resistance?

(a) Ignoring it until it goes away

(b) Making people aware of their resistance

(d) Holding your arguments until the other person is ready for them

(e) Manipulate the people who are resisting.

30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good listener?

(a) He judges content and skip delivery errors

(b) He takes extensive notes using only one system

(d) He uses heavier material as exercise for the mind

(e) He interprets emotional words but does not get hung up on them.

31. Which of the following negotiating styles is a good option when disputed resources are limited?

(a) Bargaining

(b) Dominating

(d) Compromise

(e) Win-win.

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32. Once the type of interview is decided, interviewer starts formulating specific questions. Which of the following

questions ask for the respondents judgements?

(a) Factual

(b) Opinion

(d) Secondary

(e) Hypothetical.

33. Which of the following is/are the important principle(s) to be borne in mind before starting the process of

negotiation?

I. Aim High.

II. Get the other persons shopping list.

III. Keep the whole package in mind.

IV. Do not search for variables.

(a) Only (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above

(d) (II), (III) and (IV) above

(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.

34. Negotiation can be handled in different ways and the outcome of negotiation depends on the type of approach. A

win-lose approach to negotiation may create ill will and is marked by which of the following?

(a) Savagery

(b) Harmony

(d) Laziness

(e) Discord.

35. The Dean calls for a meeting to decide a new election procedure in the college for the students. According to you,

who should participate in the meeting, along with the Dean?

I. The faculty members.

II. All the students.

III. The student representatives.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

36. Which of the following categories of interviews can be effective only when the interviewer is willing to listen to the

respondents problem and show a certain amount of tolerance?

(a) Disciplinary interviews

(b) Persuasive interviews

(d) Employment interviews

(e) Counseling interviews.

37. Business interviews are divided into various categories. Which of the following is/are true regarding performance

appraisal interviews?

I. These provide job-related feedback to employees.

II. The employees long-term career plans are discussed.

III. These seek to determine whether a particular applicant is suitable for the job.

IV. These involve personal and emotional issues.

(a) Only (II) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above

(d) (I), (II) and (IV) above

(e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.

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38. Which of the following is/are true regarding interview?

I. Its style and structure depends on the relationship between the two parties involved.

II. It is interpersonal communication between an interviewer and a respondent.

III. It is primarily undertaken to accomplish a general purpose.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

39. The manpower of Trendy Restaurant formed various groups for various tasks. If they are arranging a dinner they

focused more on the task at hand, rather than maintaining interpersonal relationships. But when they form groups for

long-term assignments like attending customer queries, they devote a lot more time to maintain relationships among

members in the group. Which of the following factors in the group communication is discussed in the above case?

(a) Size

(b) Longevity

(d) Perception and self-concept

(e) Status.

40. Research has shown that groups generally arrive at decisions in a predictable pattern. Aubrey Fisher identified

various stages in group problem solving. In which of the following stages in group problem solving, the group

members endorse their final decision by using supportive verbal and nonverbal communication?

(a) The orientation stage

(b) The conflict stage

(d) The emergence stage

(e) The reinforcement stage.

41. There are many ways that a group can make a final decision, agree on a solution or come to an agreement. In which

of the following ways of making decisions group members come to an agreement by giving up some of their

demands?

(a) Consensus

(b) Compromise

(d) Decision by leader

(e) Arbitration.

42. The success of a meeting depends on the ability of each individual member of a group to communicate with the rest

of the group as a whole. To plan a meeting the convener should decide the type of meeting to be arranged. The

purpose of which of the following types of meetings is to inform the group about recent developments?

(a) Informational meetings

(b) Problem solving meetings

(d) Respondent meetings

(e) Regional meetings.

43. While conducting a business meeting, in order to accomplish the desired objectives of the meeting, which of the

following should be avoided?

(a) Ensuring participation of all group members

(b) Giving a chance to come up with their view

(d) Start by suggesting a solution for the problem

(e) Ensuring that the participants are at ease.

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44. A successful speaker must determine and clarify the purpose of the speech before sending the message. A

politicians speech before the elections can be termed as

I. An informative speech.

II. A persuasive speech.

III. An entertaining speech.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

45. There are various ways of presenting a speech. When delivering your speech extemporaneously, notes should be

written on

(a) A notepad

(b) A4 size paper

(d) Letter pad

(e) A3 size paper.

46. The best way to make a class interesting and the students attentive, when the students are dull and sleepy is by

(a) Shocking them by shouting at the top of your voice

(b) Banging the duster on the table

(d) Using humor

(e) Asking questions.

47. Groups develop certain norms about discussion and group members develop roles that affect the groups interaction.

Which of the following is/are the purpose(s) of every group?

I. Achieve a specific goal.

II. Arrive at a decision.

III. Adopt same approach to achieve their purpose.

(a) Only (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

48. Reflective thinking developed by John Dewey, is a careful, systematic approach to a problem. This approach

involves various steps. Which of the following is/are the step(s) in this approach?

I. Problem identification.

II. Problem analysis.

III. Solution implementation.

(a) Only (II) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

49. There are various issues to be considered when selecting and organizing materials as core statement. The simplest

form of speech has which of the following essential ingredients?

I. A statement or point that requires clarification, amplification or proof.

II. The materials that clarify, amplify, or prove the statement.

III. A combination of such units that revolves around an even more general statement.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

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50. Systematic arrangement of material is crucial in informative speaking if the listener is to retain the information

presented. The purpose(s) of any introduction is/are to

I. Alert the audience to the subject of the speech.

II. Arouse in the listeners a desire for the detailed information.

III. Promote the listeners comprehension of your ideas.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

51. Most formal speeches and presentations incorporate visual aids. Visual aids dramatically increase the audiences

ability to absorb and remember information. Which of the following is not a benefit of graphic visuals?

(a) Help the audience follow the flow of different ideas in extended way

(b) Illustrate the main points

(d) Help the audience grasp information

(e) Help the audience to understand the information that is very hard to follow.

52. To promote the listeners comprehension of the ideas, and to maintain attention at a high level, the presenter should

organize the body of his/her speech into meaningful groupings. The chronological pattern has its greatest value in

explanation of processes such as

I. Historic events.

II. Relating personal experiences.

III. Geographical distribution.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

53. Incredible India is the topic of Mr. Rajeshs presentation and while preparing for the presentation he identified the

ideas and arranged them in the right sequence. Which of the following concept is discussed in the above example?

(a) Organizing

(b) Routine claims

(d) Adjustment request

(e) Credit request.

54. After a letter has been classified into one of the categories of reader reaction, the next issue to be considered is

whether the letter should be organized deductively or inductively. Which of the following statements are true

regarding inductive approach?

I. In the inductive approach, the central idea is placed first and is then followed by the evidence.

II. In the inductive approach, the evidence is placed first so as to lead up to the main idea.

III. Inductive approach is used when the audience is likely to be displeased, uninterested or unwilling.

IV. Inductive approach is used when sending bad news to the outsiders.

(a) Both (I) and (II) above

(b) Both (III) and (IV) above

(d) (I), (III) and (IV) above

(e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.

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55. Understanding the audience is often a more challenging task. It requires the cultivation of a you or reader

oriented attitude. A you attitude implies which of the following statements?

I. Think and write from your point of view.

II. Think and write from the readers point of view.

III. Think and write from your mothers point of view.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (I) and (II) above

(e) Both (I) and (III) above.

56. A claim letter is a request for an adjustment. It is divided into two groups. Identify the two groups of claim letter.

I. Routine claims.

II. Neutral claims.

III. Persuasive claims.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) Both (II) and (III) above.

57. Which of the following words does not convey a negative idea?

(a) Ridicule

(b) Chagrined

(d) Error

(e) Ignorant.

58. When writer asks for something to which they think they are entitled, the letter is called a

(a) Claim letter

(b) Bad news letter

(d) Order letter

(e) Routine letter.

59. When a response to a claim letter is favorable, ideas must be presented in which of the following sequence?

I. Explain the circumstances.

II. Close on a pleasant, forward looking note.

III. Reveal the good news in the first sentence.

(a) (I), (II) and (III) above

(b) (I), (III) and (II) above

(d) (III), (I) and (II) above

(e) (III), (II) and (I) above.

60. After composing a buffer for a bad news letter, which of the following is/are the question(s) to be asked for

evaluating the buffer?

I. Is it pleasant?

II. Is it irrelevant?

III. Is it sufficiently long?

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

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61. While writing something unpleasant, which of the following is required to gain cooperation and persuade the reader

to accept tough decisions?

(a) Good persuasion skills

(b) Empathy for the audiences feelings

(d) Explaining the drawbacks of the decision

(e) Inflict the decision.

62. In which of the following stages of collection letter series, a deductive approach is used mostly?

(a) Inquiry

(b) Reminder

(d) Regularity

(e) Urgency.

63. A persuasive message is off to a good start if the first sentences cause the reader to think. Which of the following

is/are pertaining to the introduction of the product?

I. Be natural and cohesive.

II. Stress on all the features of the product.

III. Be action oriented.

(a) Only (II) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) Both (II) and (III) above.

64. After introducing the product in an interesting way, one has to present enough supporting evidence to convince the

readers to purchase the product. Which of the following is/are true regarding convincing the reader?

I. Evidence presented must not only be authentic, it must also sound authentic.

II. Evidence must be supported always with facts and figures.

III. Readers must be overboard with technical data.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

65. An effective series of collection letters incorporates various characteristics. Which of the following characteristic

involves adaptability and skill in human relations?

(a) Timeliness

(b) Appeal

(d) Understanding

(e) Stringency.

66. An inductive or indirect approach is effective for sales letters and other persuasive messages. The selling procedure

includes various steps. Which of the following is the first step in the selling procedure?

(a) Encouraging action

(b) Introducing the product and arousing interest in it

(d) Generating desire for the product through convincing evidence

(e) Persuading to sell.

67. Which of the following types of letter ask readers to pay for services they have already received?

(a) Collection letters

(b) Sales letters

(d) Application letter

(e) Inquiry letters.

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68. Two punctuation styles are customarily used in business letters: open and mixed. Open punctuation uses which of

the following punctuation mark after the salutation or the complimentary close?

(a) A period

(b) An exclamation mark

(d) A colon

(e) No punctuation.

69. Once the writer has convinced the readers with evidence, the writer should motivate the reader to take action which

is usually done in the last paragraph of the letter. Which of the following is/are not true regarding last paragraph of

a letter?

I. It should be long.

II. It must indicate specific action wanted.

III. It must encourage quick action.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

70. The resume is primarily a sales letter, selling a particular commodity that is you. Resumes that are scanned for

input into a database are called as

(a) Apathetic

(b) Traditional

(d) Electric

(e) Functional.

71. Well-written application letters require satisfying various qualities. The quality of focusing on the reader and his

needs rather than on ones own wishes refers to

(a) The use of you-attitude

(b) Addressing to the title of the person

(d) Showing the knowledge of environment

(e) Focusing on the central point of the letter.

72. The information in education section of a resume, as in the experience section, generally appears in reverse

chronological order. Which of the following information should be included in this section?

I. The list of technical schools attended including location and inclusive dates of attendance.

II. The major area of study of the applicant.

III. The degree to be awarded to the applicant.

IV. The details of marks obtained by the applicant in his respective areas of study.

(a) Both (I) and (II) above

(b) Both (II) and (III) above

(d) (I), (II) and (IV) above

(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.

73. Suresh has completed his graduation. In one of the sections of his resume, he mentioned, To obtain a management

position in the information systems division of a major corporation or consulting firm. In which of the following

sections of a resume is such information usually furnished?

(a) Summary of job skills

(b) Education

(d) Career objective

(e) Volunteer work.

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74. Which of the following is a written message designed to provide a quick, convenient way for personnel to

communicate with each other in an organization?

(a) Report

(b) Memo

(d) Minutes

(e) Agenda.

75. A confirmation memo is designed to confirm in writing something that has been agreed to

(a) Verbally

(b) Visually

(d) Ad hoc

(e) Verbatim.

76. Which of the following is not true regarding appearance of business letter?

(a) A letter should have proper spacing and punctuation

(b) Short letters should have narrow side margins than long letters

(d) Organizational abbreviations should not have period

(e) Letters should be balanced on the page with approximately equal margins.

77. Simplified block is regarded as an efficient letter format. Which of the following is/are true regarding simplified

block format?

I. All lines in a letter begin at the left margin.

II. Salutation and complimentary close are explicitly mentioned.

III. The subject line is placed a double space below the inside address and a double space above the body.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

78. The salutation is a greeting that precedes the body of the letter. Which of the following are true regarding

salutation?

I. When the letter is sent to a specific person, the individuals name must be used.

II. When the sales letter or announcement letter is sent out to many people, salutation is omitted.

III. When the writer is not sure about the gender of recipient, he may omit the salutation to avoid offending the

person.

IV. When drafting an official correspondence, recipients official title can be used.

(a) Both (I) and (II) above

(b) Both (II) and (III) above

(d) (I), (III) and (IV) above

(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.

79. Amarnath has completed his Bachelors Degree in Management Information Systems and is proficient in the

operation of MS-DOS and Unix systems and primary applications software. He acquired valuable work habits while

completing co-operative-education requirements with a leading company and is willing to relocate. Amarnath has to

provide this information in which of the following sections of a resume?

(a) Summary of job skills

(b) Education

(d) Career objective

(e) Volunteer work.

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80. The elements of a report refer to those components that are usually included in a formal business report. Which of

the following is not an element of a report?

(a) Letter of transmittal

(b) Title page and title fly

(d) Appendix

(e) Postscript.

81. Kailash, manager of Scindia Constructions Ltd., asked his personal secretary, Bharadwaj to help his newly

appointed computer operator, Vineetha in preparing a memo. Bharadwaj explained the various guidelines to

Vineetha for preparing a memo. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the guidelines for

constructing a periodic report memo?

I. The memo should be designed as a fill-in form on which data can be entered quickly.

II. The form should be designed in such a way that it cannot be duplicated.

III. If narrative or descriptive commentary is necessary, a place should be provided on the form.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (II) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

82. The elements of a report refer to those components that are usually included in a formal business report. Which of

the following is not included in the title page of the report?

(a) The title of the report

(b) The date of submission

(d) The principal reader

(e) The name of those, writer wants to acknowledge.

83. The two basic types of abstracts are generally called descriptive and informative abstracts. Which of the following

is/are not true regarding descriptive abstract?

I. It is also known as topical or table of contents abstract.

II. It describes the topics covered in the table of contents.

III. It covers major information that the report conveys.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

84. When there is no index in the report, which of the following will provide the only guide to the reports structure,

coverage and pagination?

(a) The transmittal letter

(b) The title page

(d) The abstract

(e) The executive summary.

85. In which of the following elements of a report do the words and phrases used in reports are defined separately?

(a) Table of content

(b) Abstract

(d) Appendix

(e) List of symbols.

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86. Which of the following sections of introduction part of a report is used as a road map that enables readers to

anticipate each turn in the report?

(a) Problem

(b) Purpose

(d) Background

(e) Report organization.

87. Persuasion involves the ability to win others to your point of view. Which of the following is/are true regarding

persuasive messages?

I. All business messages are essentially persuasive messages.

II. Persuasive messages are usually shorter than routine messages.

III. To provide incentive for action, persuasive messages require more space.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

88. Veeresh has completed his graduation and is looking for a job. He consulted one of his classmates Ajay who

recently got a job in a reputed firm. Ajay suggested Veeresh that an effective job search begins with careful

planning, a process that includes self analysis, career analysis and job analysis. He gave various suggestions to

Veeresh regarding career analysis. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding career analysis that

Veeresh has to consider for a good job?

I. This analysis provides a set of questions that help a person to channel a job search and to decide whether the

chosen field is the right one.

II. A person has to start looking at a specific job in the chosen field after selecting the right field.

III. A person has to compare his interests, skills and strengths with the company and job requirements after

collecting enough information about the job being considered.

IV. A person has to identify his strengths, interests and achievements in order to provide ready answers to

questions asked during an employment interview.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above

(d) Both (III) and (IV) above

(e) (I), (III) and (IV) above.

89. Reports are classified into informational and analytical reports. Which of the following is/are example(s) of

analytical report?

I. Scientific report.

II. Feasibility report.

III. Reports on personal absenteeism.

IV. Real-estate appraisal.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) (I), (II) and (III) above

(e) (I), (II) and (IV) above.

90. There are various steps which lays the foundation of a report. Which of the following steps of report writing defines

what the report should accomplish?

(a) Identifying issues of investigation

(b) Developing the statement of purpose

(d) Defining the problem

(e) Defining the purpose.

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91. Writing a report requires careful planning. Although there is great variety in subject matter, audiences needs and

types of reports; there are steps that lay the foundation of any report. In which of the following steps, questions such

as what needs to be determined, why is the issue important, who is involved in the situation etc., are used to explore

the assignment?

(a) Identifying the issues for investigation

(b) Analyzing and interpreting data, drawing conclusions and developing recommendations

(d) Conducting research

(e) Organizing the issues for investigation.

92. Analytical studies usually contain analyses, conclusions, and recommendations. These studies generally follow a

problem-solving method. Relative merit is useful when the reports purpose is to

(a) Evaluate how well various alternatives meet the criteria

(b) Organize the report so that one could prove or disprove each reason

(d) Determine why your company is having trouble hiring secretaries

(e) Analyze the problem by speculating on the reasons.

93. Which of the following is called as filler word that has no real meaning in the sentence?

(a) Expletive

(b) Nonsensical

(d) Parenthetical

(e) Restrictive.

94. Which of the following bar charts is/are useful for expressing data that changes over time?

I. Multi-range bar chart.

II. Single-range bar chart.

III. Comparative bar chart.

IV. Stacked bar chart.

V. Clustered bar chart.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (V) above

(d) (I), (III) and (V) above

(e) All (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V) above.

95. Mr. Rakesh wants to compare the market share of televisions between the various companies in the electronic

industry. Mr. Rakesh can use which of the following bar charts?

(a) Stacked bar chart

(b) Multi-range bar chart

(d) Cluster bar chart

(e) Segmented bar chart.

96. Certain sentences are burdened with modifiers that do not sensibly modify anything in the sentence. Such modifiers

are called

(a) Misplaced modifiers

(b) Dangling modifiers

(d) Limiting modifiers

(e) Squinting modifiers.

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97. A proper paragraph must have unity and coherence. Which of the following is/are true regarding concluding

sentence in a paragraph?

I. It substantiate the main argument.

II. It restates the main idea in a different way.

III. It is a summing up of sorts.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above

(d) Both (I) and (II) above

(e) Both (I) and (III) above.

98. Which of the following can help you organize your ideas for writing the body of an essay?

(a) An outline

(b) An introduction

(d) A sub-point

(e) A topic sentence.

99. Mr. Naresh is asked to arrange for the new years day festivities. A group of people were chosen to help him. Mr.

Naresh listed down the activities that need to be performed by various people during specific period of time allotted

for the festivity. In this context, Mr. Naresh can use which of the following charts?

(a) Pie charts

(b) Line charts

(d) Bar charts

(e) Gantt charts.

100. The introduction to an essay often determines whether the reader continues to read the essay or decides to slip it into

the nearest trash can. Introduction to an essay should

I. Capture the readers attention.

II. Present the concluding statement.

III. Give the reader an idea of what material will follow.

(a) Only (II) above

(b) Only (III) above

(d) Both (I) and (III) above

(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

END OF QUESTION PAPER

Page 18 of 26

Suggested Answers

Managerial Effectiveness - I (MB1A3): January 2009

ANSWER REASON

1. A Informational reports (annual reports, monthly financial reports and reports on

personnel absenteeism) carry objective information from one area of an

organization to another. Analytical reports (scientific research, feasibility reports

and real-estate appraisals) present attempts to solve problems.

2. B Periodic reports are issued on regularly scheduled dates. They are generally

upward directed and serve management control. Preprinted forms and computergenerated

data contribute to uniformity of periodic reports.

3. C The following are the benefits derived from outlining to the writer

 The message is more concise and accurate

 The relationships among ideas are easier to distinguish and remember

Reaction to the message and its writer is more likely to be positive.

4. C To understand the reader, writer must consider the following factors:

 Age

 Economic level

 Education/occupational background

 Culture

 Rapport

 Expectations

 Needs of the reader.

5. B In the first step of the communication process, the sender has an idea of what to

communicate.

6. D The chief advantage of oral communication is the opportunity for immediate

feedback.

7. C Jill was striving to overcome communication barriers by creating an

environment for useful feedback

8. A The communication which flows between the units or individuals of same

hierarchical level is termed as Lateral communication. Informal communication

is the communication which does not follow any rules and structure. Upward

communication is the communication which starts at subordinates and ends at

the superior. Downward communication is the communication which starts at

the superior and ends at the subordinate. Grapevine is a part of informal

communication.

9. C Impose your ideas is not a correct method to deal with barriers to

communication.

10. B A writer can achieve audience-oriented writing to convey his message

effectively by examining the message from the other persons point of view.

11. E All the options will help to improve non verbal communication.

12. D Non-verbal communication is not intentional and conveys the true meaning of

the verbal messages.

13. A Discriminative listening involves an attempt to distinguish one sound from all

the others.

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14. C In response to an idea Pete states during a meeting, Andrew makes a "thumbs

up" gesture. Andrew's action functions to substitute for saying "I like your

idea".

15. D Vocal qualifiers refers to the rising or falling inflection that tells you whether a

group of words is a question or a statement, whether the speaker is uncertain of

confident, or whether a statement is sarcastic or sincere.

16. B People with poor enunciation drop word endings, slur their speech, or do not

speak clearly.

17. A People generally use the physical space to convey the relationship with the

other person. The space is divided into different zones. The zone, which is

within in the radius of 18inches and reserved for close relations and friends is

called as the intimate zone.

18. A Posture portrays confident, anxiety, fear, aggressiveness and a host of other

emotions.

19. C Illustrators are gestures that go with what we are saying verbally and tend to

depict what is being said.

20. E Lack of common experiences: It is difficult for a person to understand what is

being said, if he or she has no experience, either direct or indirect, of the

concept being discussed.

21. D Listens for central themes is a characteristic of good listener. Bad listener

listens for facts.

22. D Interruption is not a barrier to effective listening due to difference in sender and

receiver. It is a physical distraction.

23. C While avoiders shut themselves out, accommodaters neglect their own

concerns in order to satisfy the concerns of others. They are usually more

concerned with being liked and getting along than with being right.

Accommodation is the best option when you realize you're wrong, When you

want to make a goodwill gesture when the issue is important to others, etc.

Hence option (c) is the answer.

24. D Restate is to make sure everyone hears the same message. Hence option (d) is

the answer.

25. B Avoiding approach for managing conflict is more useful in the following

situations:

 When it is advisable to allow emotions to settle

 When the potential damage of confronting the conflict outweighs the

benefit of resolution.

Hence option (b) is the answer.

26. B Interpersonal skills are important for workforce to communicate with one

another and how well they coordinate within the group.

27. D Statement (I) is not true since competing approach generates ill will that is

costly and unpleasant. Statement (II) is not true since collaborating approach

focuses on satisfying both parties to the greatest degree. Statement (III) is not

true since avoiding approach focuses away from the conflict altogether.

28. D The following aspects are to be taken care of for constructive criticism:

 Understand why you are making a critical remark.

 Try to understand the other person's perspective

 Avoid critical overload.

 Avoid sounding judgmental.

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29. A Ignoring the conflict until it goes away is not one of the good strategies

30. B Bad listener takes extensive notes using only one system. The good listener

takes fewer notes using four to five different systems depending upon speaker.

31. D Compromise negotiating style is a good option when disputed resources are

limited.

32. B Opinion questions ask for the respondents judgements.

33. C The important principles to be borne in mind before starting the process of

negotiation are

 Aim High.

 Get the other person's shopping list.

 Keep the whole package in mind.

34. C The win-lose approach or bargaining approach is characterized by

competitiveness as every party tries to emerge as the winner. Ideally, the

conflicting parties should aim at a win-win approach (the interests of both the

parties are taken into consideration).

35. D The students are too large in numbers and their attendance at the meeting can

hinder the process of decision-making. Therefore, the faculty and the student

representatives should be invited for the meeting.

36. E Counseling interviews can be effective only when the interviewer is willing to

listen to the respondent's problem and show a certain amount of tolerance.

37. B Statements (I) and (II) are true regarding performance appraisal interviews i.e.,

These provide job-related feedback to employees and the employees longterm

career plans are discussed.

Statement (III) is not true regarding performance appraisal interviews since

employment interviews seek to determine whether a particular applicant is

suitable for the job.

Statement (IV) is not true regarding performance appraisal interviews since

counseling interviews involve personal and emotional issues.

38. C Statements (I) and (II) are true regarding interview i.e., it is a interpersonal

communication between an interviewer and a respondent and the style and

structure of an interview depends on the relationship between the two parties

involved.

Statement (III) is not true since it is primarily undertaken to accomplish a

specific purpose.

39. B Longevity: Groups formed for short-term goals, such as to arrange a dinner,

usually focus more on the task at hand, rather than on maintaining interpersonal

relationships. Groups formed for long-term assignments may devote a lot more

time to maintaining relationships among members.

40. E In the Reinforcement Stage the group members endorse their final decision by

using supportive verbal and nonverbal communication.

41. B There are many ways that a group can make a final decision, agree on a solution

come to an agreement. In the Compromise-group forms of decision making

members come to an agreement by giving up some of demands.

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42. A Informational meetings are the easiest to plan. The purpose is to inform the

group about recent developments. The convener does most of the talking but

there is also scope for two-way communication.

43. D A good leader should not start by giving a solution to a problem. He/she should

first give everyone in the group, a chance to come up with their views. This

would lead to a healthy discussion and eventually to the group's decision. The

leader should guide and facilitate.

44. B A persuasive speech, because before elections a politician thinks of garnering

more votes by persuading the voters.

45. C When using notes one should follow few guidelines. The notes should be on

small stiff paper rather than on a long sheet of paper.

46. D Using humor is the best of bringing back to life, a dull and sleepy audience. It

would shake them out of their slumber, but in a pleasant way.

47. B The purpose of every group is to achieve a specific goal or to arrive at a

decision. Groups always encourage communication. Groups adopt different

approach to achieve a purpose.

48. E Developed by John Dewey, this is a careful, systematic approach to a problem.

This approach involves six steps:

1. Problem identification

2. Problem analysis

3. Criteria selection

4. Solution generation

5. Solution evaluation and selection

6. Solution implementation

49. C The simplest form of speech has essentially two ingredients: (1) a statement or

point that requires clarification, amplification or proof and (2) the materials that

clarify, amplify, or prove the statement.

A complex speech is simply a combination of such units revolving around an

even more general statement

50. C The dual purposes of any introduction are to alert the audience to the subject of

the speech and to arouse in the listeners a desire for the detailed information

contained in the body of the speech.

To promote the listener's comprehension of your ideas, and to maintain

attention at a high level, you should organize the body of your speech into

meaningful groupings.

So statement (III) is not true about the introduction of the speech.

51. A Text visuals consist of words and help the audience follow the flow of different

ideas. Is true about text visual aids. Remaining statements are true about graphic

visuals. Graphic visual aid concentrate on main point only.

52. C The chronological or time pattern has its greatest value in explanations of

processes, in presentation of historic events, and in relating personal

experiences.

53. A The process of identifying these ideas and arranging them in the right

sequence is known as outlining or organizing.

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54. E The following statements are true regarding inductive approach:

 In the inductive approach, the evidence is placed first so as to lead up to

the main idea.

 If the audience is likely to be resistant - displeased, uninterested, or

unwilling - the writer would have better results with the inductive (or

indirect) approach.

If you are sending bad news to outsiders, for example, an indirect approach is

probably the best.

55. B You attitude imply think and write from the reader's point of view.

56. D The two groups of claim letter are routine claims and persuasive claims.

57. C The word productive does not convey a negative idea.

58. A When writer asks for something to which they think they are entitled, the letter

is called a claim letter.

59. D When a response to a claim letter is favorable, ideas must be presented in the

following sequence:

 Reveal the good news in the first sentence.

 Explain the circumstances.

 Close on a pleasant, forward looking note.

60. A After composing a buffer for a bad news letter, the following questions should

be asked for evaluating the buffer:

 Is it pleasant?

 Is it relevant?

 Is it neutral?

61. B Without empathy for the audience's feelings, it is hard to gain its cooperation or

persuade it to accept tough decisions.

62. E Urgency stage uses deductive approach mostly.

63. D Statements (I) and (III) are pertaining to introducing the product division of the

message.

64. A The following is true regarding convincing-evidence portion of the letter:

 Evidence presented must not only be authentic, it must also sound

authentic.

 In certain cases, the use of facts and figures can be powerful but not in all

cases.

 Readers must not be overboard with technical data.

65. D Understanding involves adaptability and skill in human relations.

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66. C The selling procedure includes four steps:

 Getting the readers' Attention.(A)

Introducing the product and arousing Interest in it. (I)

Generating Desire for the product through convincing evidence. (D)

Encouraging Action. (A)

67. A Collection letter asks the reader to pay for what they have received.

68. E Open punctuation use no punctuation after either the salutation or the

complimentary close.

69. A The following are true regarding last paragraph of a letter:

 It should be kept short but not long.

 It must indicate specific action wanted.

 It must encourage quick action.

70. C Electronic resumes are scanned for input into a database. To ensure

effective scanning, a sans serif font like Helvetica should be used and the size

of the font should range between 10 and 14 points. Italics, shadow lettering,

underlining, horizontal or vertical lines and bullets should be avoided.

71. A The quality of focusing on the reader and his needs rather than on ones own

wishes is known as you- attitude. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

72. E All the given information is to be included in the education section of a resume.

73. D The career objective of an applicant is usually represented as To obtain a

management position in the information systems division of a major corporation

or consulting firm. Hence, option (d) is the answer.

74. B A memo is a written message designed to provide a quick, convenient way for

personnel to communicate with each other.

75. A In this context, verbally means communicated orally. Verbatim means word by

word. In business, nothing is agreed to visually. And how can a businessman

agree to anything when he or his representative has not been present? In

absentia is therefore not the correct answer. Nothing is ever agreed to ad hoc,

i.e., on a temporary basis. Appointments can be made ad hoc, though.

76. B Shorts letter should have wider side margins than long letters.

77. C Salutation and complimentary close are omitted in simplified block letter

format.

78. D When the sales letter or announcement letter is sent out to many people, a

general salutation may be used, say, Dear Customer, Dear Policyholder etc. All

other options are true regarding salutation.

79. A In summary of qualifications, one has to present his educational qualifications

with valuable work habits that he has acquired. Therefore option (a) is the

correct answer.

80. E Postscript is a special part in the letter format.

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81. C Statements (I) and (III) are true regarding the guidelines for constructing a

periodic report memo. Statement (II) is incorrect. That is, the form should be

designed so that it can be duplicated. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

82. E The following are included in title page of the report:

 The title of the report

 The date of submission

 The name and position of the writer

 The principal reader

83. B It simply describes the topics covered in the table of contents, giving equal

coverage to each is true regarding descriptive abstract.

84. C The table of contents will provide the only guide to the reports structure,

coverage and pagination.

85. C In glossary the words and phrases used in reports are defined separately.

86. E Report organization section is a road map that enables readers to anticipate each

turn in the report.

87. D The following are true regarding persuasive messages:

 All business messages are essentially persuasive messages.

 To provide incentive for action, persuasive messages require more space.

Statement (II) is not true because persuasive messages are usually longer than

routine messages but not shorter than routine messages.

88. B Statements (I) and (II) are relating to career analysis. Statement (III) relates to

matching personal needs with job profile and statement (IV) relates to self

analysis. Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.

89. E Analytical reports (scientific research, feasibility reports, real-estate appraisals)

present attempts to solve problems.

Informational reports (annual reports, monthly financial reports, reports on

personnel absenteeism) carry objective information from one area of an

organization to another

90. B The statement of purpose defines what the report should accomplish.

91. C To determine the precise nature of the problem, explore your report assignment

using the following questions in defining the problem of the purpose step :

 What needs to be determined?

 Why is the issue important?

 Who is involved in the situation?

 Where is the trouble located?

 When did it start?

 How did the situation originate?

92. A Relative merit: When the assignment involves evaluating how well various

alternatives meet your criteria, the natural way to structure your analysis is by

focusing on the criteria. All the other statements are related to hypothesis.

93. A Expletive is called as filler word that has no real meaning in the sentence.

Page 25 of 26

94. D The multiple-range bar chart, also called comparative or cluster bar

chart, is useful for expressing data that change over time. The multiple -range

bar chart is especially effective in comparing more than one quantity (set of

data) at each point along the x-axis, compares the frequency of reported

injuries at three plants over an entire year.

The stacked-bar chart, also called component, 100 percent, or segmented bar

chart. When you want to show how different facts (components) contribute to a

total figure, the stacked-bar chart is desirable. This graphic is particularly

useful when components for more than one time period are being compared.

The simple bar chart (also called single-range bar chart) is an effective

graphic device for quantities.

95. C The simple bar chart (also called single-range bar chart) is an effective

graphic device for quantities.

The multiple-range bar chart, also called comparative or cluster bar chart,

is useful for expressing data that change over time. The multiple -range bar

chart is especially effective in comparing more than one quantity (set of data) at

each point along the x-axis, compares the frequency of reported injuries at

three plants over an entire year.

The stacked-bar chart, also called component, 100 percent, or segmented bar

chart. When you want to show how different facts (components) contribute to a

total figure, the stacked-bar chart is desirable. This graphic is particularly

useful when components for more than one time period are being compared.

96. B Certain sentences are burdened with modifiers that do not sensibly modify

anything in the sentence. Such modifiers are called dangling modifiers.

97. E The concluding sentence of the paragraph usually restates the main idea in a

different way. While the other sentences substantiate the main argument, the

concluding statement is a summing up of sorts.

98. A To write the body of the essay, you must organize your ideas. Here an outline

can be off immense help.

99. E A gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart that graphically displays time

relationships. Time is displayed on the horizontal axis and tasks are shown on

the vertical axis. The length of the bars depicts the amount of time they

represent. Gantt charts provide a method for determining the sequence and

particular actions that need to be taken to achieve a given objective.

100. D Broadly, an introduction should

 Capture the reader's attention.

 Present the thesis statement (main idea).

 Give the reader an idea of what material will follow.

 Hint at how the writing is organized.

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