All India Institute of Medical Sciences 2003 Post Graduate Diploma all india medical pre pg entrance - Question Paper

3. Extradural hematoma.
4. Hemorrhagic contusion.
Ans.4 [ Since grey white matter interface is disturbed that is inside barin tissue, also infarts are pale, hemorrhages are brighter on CT within two weeks of injury]
262. Which of the subsequent is the best option to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?
1. CT scan.
2. MRI.
3. Angiography
4. Myelography.
Ans. 2
263. Most suitable radioisotope of iodine for treating hyperthyroidism is:
1. I 123
2. I 125
3. I 131
4. I 132
Ans.3
264. In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is re-absorbed which part of the nephron:
1. Proximal tubule.
2. Distal tubule.
3. Loop of Henle.
4. Collecting duct.
Ans.1 [ Do not get distracted by "in presence of vasopressin" as greatest fraction is always absorbed from PT; Vasopressin acts on remaining fraction of water after absorbtion from PT]
265. A one-year-old child having leucocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:
1. Enucleation.
2. Chemotherapy followed by local dyes.
3. Direct Laser ablation using photo dynamic cryotherapy.
4. Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy.
Ans.1
266. A child has got a congenital catract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated.
1. Immediately.
2. At two months of age.
3. At one year of age when the globe becomes normal sized.
4. After four year when entire ocular and orbital growth become normal.
Ans.?4
267. A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All the subsequent things are suitable for performing LASIK except:
1. Myopia of four Diopters.
2. Age of 15 years.
3. Stable refraction for one year.
4. Corneal thickness of 600 microns.
Ans.2
268. Fasanella Servat operation is specififcally indicated in:
1 Congenital ptosis.
2. Steroid induced ptosis.
3. Myasthenia gravis.
4. Horner’s syndrome.
Ans. 1
269. The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors is indicated in:
1. Senile ectropion.
2. Senile entropion.
3. Cicatricial entropion.
4. Paralytic entropion.
Ans. 2
270. Which of the subsequent lasers is used for treatment of bening prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi?
1. CO2 laser.
2. Excimer laser.
3. Ho: YAG laser.
4. Nd: YAG laser.
Ans. three Bailey Page 1247 , This is Holmium YAG laser.There has been considerable interest in this device, as it seems to combine the cutting properties of the carbon dioxide laser with the coagulation properties of the neodymium:YAG laser, making it particularly appealing for many surgical applications. Recently being used as a subsitute for ESWL (lithotripsy).
Prostate: Holmium Laser Resection of the Prostate (HoLRP) for BPH- Using HOLRP, the prostate can be accurately resected down to the capsule with minimal bleeding, little fluid absorption or secondary haemorrhage. Journal of Endourology, Vol. 13 Supplement 1, A98, Sep 1999
271. A 65-year-old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Carcinoma urinary bladder.
2. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
3. Carcinoma prostate.
4. Cystolithiasis.
Ans.1
272. A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydrouretero-nephrosis is best treated with:
1. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy.
2. Antegrade percutaneous access.
3. Open ureterolithotomy.
4. Ureteroscopic retrieval.
Ans.3 [Ref Das Text book of surgery]
273. Semen analysis of a young man who presented with primay infertility revealed low volume, fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermia. Which of the subsequent is the most useful imaging modality to evaluate the reason of his infertility?
1. Colour duplex ultrasonography of the scrotum.
2. Transrectal ultrasonography.
3. Retrograde urethrography.
4. Spermatic venography.
Ans.2 [ For fructose negetive azoospermia - causes may be Ejaculatory duct obstruction, Atresia of vas / seminal vesicle. And investigations for Obstructive pathology in seminal pathology are Transrectal USG / pelvic CT with Vasography. options 1,4 will be fructose +ve ]
274. An eight-year-old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorso-lumbar vertrbra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnoisi is:
1. Ewing’s sarcoma.
2. Tuberculosis.
3. Histiocytosis.
4. Metastasis.
Ans. four [ Maheshewari Orthopaedics textbook says that in TB spine disc spaces are narrowed which is to be compaerd with normal disc space in metastasis ]
275. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may outcome when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the subsequent reason:
1. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tisseues such as brain and heart.
2. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure.
3. There is a sudden out-burst of release of adreneline, noradreneline and dopamine in brain and heart.
4. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver.
Ans.1
276. A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulses paradoxus at the fourth post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is .
1.Excessive mediastinal bleeding.
2. Ventricular dysfunction.
3. Congestive cardiac failure.
4. Cardiac tamponade.
Ans.4
277. A 70 year old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transurethral resection of prostate under spinal anaesthersia. 1 hour later, he developed vomiting and altered sensorium. The most probable sause is:
1. Over dosage of spinal anaesthetic agent.
2. Rupture of bladder.
3. Hyperkalemia.
4. Water intoxication
Ans. 4
278. Kinebock’s disease is due to avascular necrosis of:
1. Femoral neck.
2. Medial cuneiform bone.
3. Lunate bone.
4. Scaphoid bone.
Ans. 3
279. A 50-year old male. Working as a hotel cook, has 4 dependent family members. He has been diagnosed with an early stage squamous cell cancer of anal canal. He has more than 60% chances of cure. The best treatment choice is:
1. Abdomino-perineal resection.
2. Combined surgery and radiotherapy.
3. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
4. Chemotherapy alone.
Ans. 3
280. Which 1 of the subsequent radio-isotopes is commonly used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the treatment of cancer patients:
1. Strontium-89.
2. Radium-226.
3. Cobalt-59.
4. Cobalt-60.
Ans.4
281. All of the subsequent statements are accurate about potassium balance, except:
1. Most of potassium is intracellular.
2. 3 quarter of the total body potassium is obtained in skeletal muscle.
3. Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space in response to severe injury.
4. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment.
Ans. 4
282. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the subsequent features except:
1. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region.
2. Hyperactive tendon reflexes.
3. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG.
4. Carpopedal spasm.
Ans.3
283. The best time for surgery of hypospadias is:
1. 1-4 months of age.
2. 6-10 months of age.
3. 12-18 months of age.
4. 2-4 years of age.
Ans. ?4[S Das surgery says 5-7 yrs]
284. Which of the subsequent is not actual about Berger’s disease?
1. The pathologic modifications are proliferative and usually confined to measangial cells:
2. Hematuria may be gross or microscopic.
3. On immunofluorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG.
4. Absence of associated protyeinuria is pathognomonic.
Ans. 4
285. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and Eastern U.P. is:
1. Wuchereria bancrofti.
2. Brugia malayi.
3. Onchocerca volvulus.
4. Dirofilaria.
Ans.1
286. Which 1 of the subsequent statements is false with regard in Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children.
1. Often affects those younger than eight years of age.
2. It affects the kidney focally more frequently than diffusely.
3. Boys are affected more frequently.
4. Clinical presentation in children is identical as in adults.\
Ans.?
287. The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for:
1. Varicose veins.
2. Arteriovenous fistulae.
3. Aneurysm.
4. Acute ischemiz.
Ans.3
288. Pseudoclaudication is due to the compression of:
1. Femoral artery.
2. Femoral nerve.
3. Cauda Equina.
4. Popliteal artery.
Ans. 3
289. Sympathectomy is indicated in all the subsequent conditions except:
1. ischaemic ulcers.
2. Intermittent claudication.
3. Anhidrosis.
4. Acrocyanosis.
Ans. 3
290. Which 1 of the subsequent statements is false with regard to pyaria in children?
1. Presence of more than five WBC/hpf (high power field) for girls and more than three WBC/hpf for boys.
2. Infection can occur without pyuria.
3. Pyuria may be current without Urinary tract infection.
4. Isolated pyuria is neither confirmatory nor diagnostic for Urinary tract infection.
Ans.2
291. Which 1 of the folloing is the most common reason of abdominal mass in neonates?
1. Neuroblastomas.
2. Wilms’ tumour.
3. Distended bladder.
4. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys.
Ans. four [ In neonate Abdominal mass is due to renal causes 55% of cases: Hydronephrosis in 25 % and Multicystic kidneys in 15 % of (TOTAL) cases. Non renal retroperitoneal causes including Neuroblastoma, adrenal hemorrhage, and teratoma account together for 10 % of cases. GIT & Genital causes in 15 % each] [ IN CHILDREN: Neuroblastoma most common mass then Wilms tumour and hydronephrosis] Ref Stephen Chapman & Richard Nakielny Radiology Diffrential Diagnosis page 200/1 third ed, Ghai page 362] [ Dr Bhuvnesh Kansara]
292. All of the subsequent are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except:
1. Duration of Surgery more than thirty minutes.
2. Obesity.
3. Age less than forty years.
4. Use of the oestrogen-projesterone contraceptive pills.
Ans. 3?
293. A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most improper test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
1. Weil Felix test.
2. Paul Bunnel test.
3. Microscopic agglutination test.
4. Micro immunofluorescence test.
Ans.3
294. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside. The most improper method to disinfect the endoscope is by:
1. 70% alcohol for five min.
2. 2% gluteraldelyde for 20 min.
3. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min.
4. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min.
Ans.2
295. Which of the subsequent statements is actual about rabies virun:
1. It is a double stranded RNA virus.
2. Contains a DNA dependant RNA polymerase.
3. RNA has a negative polarity.
4. Affects motor neurons
Ans. three [Harrison : Rabies affects sensory nerve endings pg 1149 15th]
296. Which of the subsequent statements is actual about endemic typhus.
1. Is caused by R. rickettsii.
2. Is transmitted by the bite of fleas.
3. Has no mammalian reservoir.
4. Can be cultured in chemical described culture medium.
Ans. 2
297. A 45 year old female is having bilatertal ovarian mass, ascites and omental caking on CT scan, There is high possibility that patient is having .
1. Benign ovarian tumor.
2.Malignant epithelial ovarian tumor.
3. Dysgerminoma of ovary.
4. Lymphoma of ovary.
Ans. 2
298. The commonest reason of an obliterative stricture of the membranous urethra is:
1. Fall-astride injury.
2. Road-traffic accident with fracture pelvis and rupture urethra.
3. Prolonged catheterization
4. Gonococcal infection.
Ans.2 [Bailey 1359]
299. Which of the subsequent is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia:
1. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis.
2. Nocturnal frequency.
3. Recurrent urinary tract infection.
4. Voiding bladder pressures> 50 cm of water.
Ans.1
300. A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass. The treatment of option is
1. Radiotherapy .
2. Immunotherapy with interferon and interleukins.
3. Left high inguinal orchiectomy plus chemotherapy.
4. Chemotherapy alone.
Ans. 3

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