Manipal University 2000 Post Graduate Diploma Medical pre PG ENTRANCE - Question Paper

a. Extraperitoneal lymphadenectomy, b. Intraperitoneal lymphadenectomy, c. replaced neck node dissection, d. Pelvic extenteration
Ans: (a)
19. Meleny’s ulcer is
a. Due to synergistic action of staphylococci and streptococci, b. Known to occur in burns, c. Occurs in head injury, d. Self resolving condition of ankle.
Ans: (a)
20. Which of the subsequent is premalignant condition
a. Condyloma acuminata, b. Atypical endometrial hyperplasia, c. cervical polyp, d. Fordyce spots.
Ans: (b)

Orthopedics

1. March fracture is seen in
a. second metatarsal, b. metacarpals, c. third metacarpals, d. fifth metatarsal.
Ans: (a)
2. Loosers zone is seen in
a. Osteopetrosis, b. Osteomalacia, c. Osteoarthritis, d. osteoporosis.
Ans: (b)
3. Hangman’s fracture is
a. Spondylolisthesis of C2 over C3 , b. Fracture of odontoid process, c. Fracture of transverse process, d. Dislocation of C5.
Ans: (a)


4. Bunion is
a. Fluid filled bursa over bony prominence, b. Benign tumour of sensational bones, c. Communication ranging from radial and ulnar bursae, d. Cyst ranging from radical and ulnar bursae.
Ans: (a)
5. Osteochondroma develops into
a. Chondrosarcoma, b. Osteosacroma, c. Exostosis, d. Osteoma.
Ans: (a)
6. Test for dequervain’s tenosynovitis is
a. Frankelstein test, b. Phalen’s test, c. Tinel’s sign, d. Apley grinding test.
Ans: (a)
7. Regarding Rheumatoid arthritis all are actual other than.
a. Morning stiffness of less than 15 minutes, b. Small joints of hand are involved, c. More then three joints are involved, d. Symmetrical involvement of joints.
Ans: (a)
8. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are seen in
a. Gout, b. Pseudogout, c. Arthritis, d. Osteomalacia.
Ans: (b)
9. Regarding hip joint which of the subsequent is actual.
a. Flexor retinaculum attaches the head of femur to hip bone, b. After fracture neck of femur, psoas muscle acts lateral rotator of femur, c. Abductor muscles are supplied by inferior gluteal nerve, d. Capsule of hip joint is attached to intertrochantric ridge.
Ans: (a)

Obstetrics and Gynecology

1. Grayish white frothy discharge per vaginum is seen in
a. Candida, b. Gardenella vaginalis, c. Trichomonas, d. All of the above.
Ans: (b)
2. Pregnant woman is anemic when Hb is less than
a. 9gm%, b. 10gm%, c. 11gm%, d. 12gm%.
Ans: (c)
3. Endometrial carcinoma with involved paraaortic lymph node is staged as: -
a. IIIb, b. IIIc, c. Iva, d. Iva.
Ans: (b)
4. Embryonic period is after conception to
a. eight weeks, b. 10 weeks, c. 12 weeks, d. 72 hours.
Ans: (a)
5. Treatment of option for stress incontinence is
a. Bursch operation, b. Manchester operation, c. Gallium Operation,
b. d. Shirodkar sling.
Ans: (a)
6. Call exner bodies are seen in
a. Granulosa cell tumor, b. Dysgerminoma, c. Theca cell tumor, d. Endodermal sinus tumor.
Ans: (a)
7. Litzmans obliquity is
a. Nagelle pelvis, b. Normal synclitism, c. Anterior synclitism, d. Posterior asynclitism.
Ans: (d)
8. In the left anterior oblique breech presentation diameter of engagement of head is
a. Left lateral oblique, b. Right anterior oblique, c. Occipito transverse, d. Anterior position.
Ans: (b)
9. SLE in pregnancy actual in all other than
a. Causes recurrent abortion, b. Lupus anticoagulant in an anticoagulant in vitro, c. Causes eclampsia, d. Corticosteroids are contraindicated.
Ans: (d)
10. actual about cephalhematoma is
a. Incompressible and soft, b. Does not cross the suture line, c. current at birth, d. Surgery is needed.
Ans: (b)
11. Most common presentation of genitourinary TB is
a. Oligomenorrhea, b. Menorrhagia, c. Secondary Amenmorrhea, d. Primary dysmenorrhea.
Ans: (b)
12. Menopausal symptoms are due to lack of
a. LH, b. FSH, c. Estrogen, d. Progesterone.
Ans: (c)
13. Which of the subsequent does not cross placenta
a. heparin, b. Warfarin, c. Tetracycline, d. Insulin.
Ans: (a)
14. Mifepristone in MTP acts by
a. Agonist of progesterone, b. Agonist of estrogen, c. Antagonist of progesterone, d. Antagonist of estrogen.
Ans: (c)
15. AFP can be used to determine all other than
a. Downs syndrome, b. IUGR, c. Preterm infant, d. Neural tube defects.
Ans: (c)
16. Suckling releases which hormone from pituitary
a. Prolactin, Oxytocin, c. Somatostatin, d. Somatomedin
Ans: (a)

Skin

1. Silvery scales on erythematous bone is seen in
a. Pemphigus, b. Pityriasis versicolor, c. Psoriasis, d. Erythema nodosum.
Ans: (c)
2. Ultra violet light most commonly effects
a. Skin, b. Liver, c. Lung, d. Kidney.
Ans: (a)
3. Norwegian scabies is most seen in
a. Immunocompromized, b. Infants, c. Elderly, d. Old age.
Ans: (a)
4. Tinea infection of nail is treated by
a. Griseofulvin and fluconazole, b. Miconazole, d. Whitfields ointment.
Ans: (a)

Anaesthesia

1. Scholine is
a. Depolarising muscle relaxant causing prolonged relaxation, b. Is competitive muscle relaxant, c. Competitive partial agonist, d. Competetive agonist.
Ans: (a)
2. All of the subsequent is actual regarding halothane except: -
a. Causes bronchospasm, b. Sensitisizes centers to adrenaline, c. Potentiate competitive neuromuscular blockers, d. Non inflammable volatile liquid.
Ans: (a)
3. Saddle block anaesthesia actual is
a. Epidural anaesthesia of sacral region, b. Hyperbaric solution injected in spinal canal, c. Anesthetic moves up in spinal canal, d. Inferior gluteal nerve block.
Ans: (a)
4. Caudal anaesthesia is
a. Anesthetic injection in coccygeal canal, b. For perineal and rectal surgery, c. Injection into umbilical vein, d. identical as epidural.
Ans: (b)

5. Post spinal anaesthesia headache is due to
a. Increase in amount of CSF, b. Leakage of CSF, c. Bleeding of epidural veins, d. Tonsillar herniation.
Ans: (b)

Radiology

1. Cardiac hypertrophy is diagnosed by
a. Chest X-ray, b. Cardiac biopsy (histology of left ventricle), c. Left ventricular thickness, d. Weighing the heart.
Ans: (b)
2. Pseudoparalysis rosary, frenkel’s line, pencil thin cortex on X-ray is
a. Vitamin C deficiency, b. Vitamin D deficiency, c. Vitamin A deficiency, d. Fatty acid deficiency.
Ans: (a)

Earning:   Approval pending.