Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) 2009 Ph.D Bio-Technology NET - Question Paper
GENERAL SCIENCE PAPER I (PART A)
1. If the speed of light (3 x 108 m/s) and the mean radius of the earth (6 x 101 km) are taken to be the units of speed and length respectively, then the value of the new unit of acceleration expressed in m/s2 will be
1. 1.5 x 1010
2. 50
3. 0.02 5
4. 1.2 x 105
2. The minimum number of multiplications required to evaluate the expression
1. 4
2. 5
3. 3
4. 7
3. Consider the function
f (x) = x (1 - x) for 0 < x < 1 The function
1. attains minima at x = ' and %.
2. is discontinuous in the given interval
3. is negative at a few points in the given interval.
4. has a maximum at x = 'A
|
4. Which of the following distributions has the smallest variance? |
 |
5. One way to determine whether a number (n) is prime or not is to divide it by numbers less than itself. The number of divisions required is
1. from east to west
2. from west to east
3. from north to south
4. from south to north
7. The top of a mountain is at an elevation of 45 from one bank of a river and at an
elevation of 60 from the other bank. If the river has a width of 1 km, what is the height [in km] of the mountain?
1.
3.
4.
1+# V3 -1
8. On a cold day, a copper vessel feels colder to touch than a glass bowl. What is the reason for this?
1. Glass does not cool down as easily as copper does.
2. Glass is a poor conductor of heat compared to copper.
3. The specific heat of glass is higher than that of copper.
4. Glass radiates more heat than copper does.
9. If the distance between two bodies of masses m1 and m2 is doubled, the gravitational force between them
1. doubles.
2. halves.
3. becomes one-fourth.
4. remains the same.
10. A cricket ball and a football are dropped simultaneously from the top of Qutub Minar. Which of the following best describes their subsequent behaviour?
1. They touch the ground at the same instant.
2. They touch the ground with the same velocity.
3. The cricket ball reaches before the football.
4. The football reaches before the cricket ball.
/m\ 500a
1. increases as a function of time with constant acceleration.
11. A mass m (200 g) slides horizontally due to a downward force applied by a 500 g weight (as shown in figure). The velocity of the mass m (ignoring friction)
12.
2. remains constant.
3. changes with time with increasing acceleration.
4. changes with time with decreasing acceleration.
12. The O-H bonds in water molecule are polar. The molecule is symmetric and the H-O-H bond angle is approximately 107. The dipole moment vector of the molecule is
1. zero
2. along the OH bond
3. randomly oriented
4. along the bisector of the H-O-H angle
13. You wish to observe a small organism closely, using a convex lens. If you wish to avoid distortion of the image, you should keep the object
1. at a distance greater than the focal length
2. less than the focal length
3. at twice the focal length
4. exactly at the focal length
14. A charged particle moving with a constant velocity enters a magnetic field perpendicular to its velocity. In which direction y an electric field should be applied to compensate the magnetic force?
1. Along the initial velocity
2. Perpendicular to the initial velocity and parallel to the magnetic field
3. Perpendicular to both, the initial velocity and the magnetic field
4. Along the magnetic field
15. Two pendula of lengths l1 and l2 (= 2l1) have the same period at two different locations. The accelerations due to gravity at these two locations, g1 and g2, are related
by
16. Water rises naturally out of an artesian well because
1. the water has lots of dissolved gases
2. the water table is at the ground level
3. the water table is below the ground level
4. the water table is above the ground level
17. Although, we know from chemical evidence that life on Earth evolved as early as 3.5 billion years ago, the most ancient available fossils are only 0.54 billion years old. This is because
1. acidic ocean dissolved all life forms
2. early life forms were soft bodied
3. rocks older than 0.54 billion years do not exist
4. a large asteroid impact destroyed all earlier records
18. During a-decay of a radioactive atom, the mass number reduces by 4 units and the atomic number decreases by 2 units. How many a-particles will be generated during the decay of a 39428U atom to a28026Pb atom.
1. 8
2. 16
3. 10
4. 5
19. Depletion of ozone layer and formation of ozone hole in polar regions is a phenomenon occurring in the
1. troposphere.
2. mesosphere.
3. stratosphere.
4. thermosphere.
20. Sea levels are predicted to rise in the near future mainly due to
1. sinking of landmass
2. increased rainfall
3. gravitational pull of the moon
4. melting of glaciers.
21. The pH value of distilled water is always below 7. This is because
1. distillation reduces the ionic product of water.
2. during distillation inorganic salts are removed.
3. nitrogen from air gets dissolved in it.
4. CO2 from air dissolves in it.
22. Photosynthesis in water bodies is restricted to a certain depth. This is mainly because
1. temperature decreases with depth
2. light intensity decreases with depth
3. dissolved CO2 is available only to a certain depth
4. nutrients are available only to a certain depth
23. The velocity of P (pressure) and S (shear) seismic waves depends on the compressibility, shear modulus and density of the medium. The inner core of the Earth is inferred to be liquid using seismic wave travel time. This is because
1. the density of the inner core is the highest.
2. the inner core has a very high compressibility.
3. both P and S waves pass through the inner core.
4. the S wave does not pass through the inner core.
24. One of the following chemicals used as food preservative is
1. sodium benzoate
2. sodium alkylbenzene sulfonate
3. ethylene glycol
4. aspartic acid
25. Qualitative analysis of Al3+ in presence of Fe3+ and Cr3+ is based on
1. reducing nature of Fe3+
2. oxidizing nature of Cr3+
3. amphoteric nature of Fe3+
4. amphoteric nature of Al3+ and Cr3+
26. Hydrolysis of -butyl chloride in presence of aqueous alkali produces -butyl alcohol. The rate of hydrolysis depends on
1. CH3 - CH2 = CH2
H CH3
I I
2 -propyl- C = C-CH =CH2 CH3 CH3
I I
3. H3C - C = C - CH = CH2
CH3
I
4. CH2 = C - CH = CH2
28. The ionization potential (IP) of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The estimated second IP of the helium atom (in eV) is
1. 6.8
2. 27.2
3. 54.4
4. 13.6
29. The following molecule has a non-zero dipole moment
|
1. |
CH4 |
|
2. |
CO2 |
|
3. |
NH3 |
|
4. |
BF3 |
30. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is
1. + 6
2. + 3
3. + 10
4. + 5
A --B (salt) + H2
(alcohol)
B -Me1-c (ether)
C Conc. ffl MeI
heat
A NaOH/I iodoform
The alcohol (A), salt (B) and ether (C), are respectively
1. CH3OH, CHsONa, CH3-O-CH3
2. CH3OH, C2H5ONa, CH3-O-C2H5
3. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5-O-C2H5
4. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, CH3-O-C2H5
32. In any ecosystem, the primary producers such as photosynthetic plants are the most abundant and predators such as tigers are the least abundant. The fundamental law responsible for this pattern is
1. first law of thermodynamics
2. second law of thermodynamics
3. Mendel's laws of genetics
4. law of conservation of mass
33. In the Siberian forests, carbon fixation is expected to be maximum in
1. January
2. July
3. October
4. April
34. Movement of water in a tree takes place in
1. roots only
2. in the central part of the stem
3. in the peripheral part of the stem
4. leaves only
35. Which of the following is not used as a fertilizer?
1. Ammonium nitrate
2. Ammonium phosphate
3. Urea
4. Sodium chloride
36. In DNA, Adenosine pairs with Thymine, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine. If Adenosine constitutes 18% and Guanine constitutes 24% of all nucleotides in a DNA preparation, it must be a
1. single stranded DNA
2. double stranded DNA
3. very short stretch of double stranded DNA
4. multi-chromosomal DNA
37. A bacterium which is 1 |i in diameter and divides every 20 minutes, forms a 1 mm diameter colony in 24 hours in a growth medium with limited nutrients. The number of cells in the colony is approximately
1. 1000
2 . 109
3. 2 x 72
4. 272
38. Burns caused by steam are more serious than burns caused by boiling water because
1. steam has large latent heat
2. steam has a very large specific heat compared to water
3. steam is hotter than boiling water
4. steam being a gas makes easy contact with skin
39. The largest decimal number that a four byte integer can represent is approximately
1. 105
2. 107
3. 109
4. 1011
40. A modern personal computer is capable of multiplying two numbers in a few
1. picoseconds
2. nanoseconds
3. microseconds
4. milliseconds
2jn
less than 4n
concentration of alkali
amount of water
41. During protein synthesis, L-amino acid binds to t-RNA through
1. a-amino group.
2. hydrophobic side chain.
3. a-carboxyl group.
4. carboxyl group of the side chain.
42. The peptide bond is planar
1. due to restriction caused by rotation around ca-N bond
2. due to restriction around ca-c' bond
3. due to delocalization of the lone pair of electrons of the nitrogen onto carbonyl oxygen
4. because amide protons and carbonyl oxygen are involved in hydrogen bonding.
43. Hydrogen bond length will NOT be
1. independent of the nature of donor and acceptor atoms.
2. dependent on donor and acceptor atoms.
3. dependent on the solvent in which the molecule is dissolved.
4. dependent on the other atoms bonded with the donor and acceptor atom.
44. Why a DNA duplex melts at a specific temperature (Tm) on heating?
1. Loss of base stacking energy
2. The double helix is intrinsically unstable
3. The single helix is more stable as compared to the double helix
4. The DNA double helix is a co-operative structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds and base pairing
45. Lipid bilayers can be formed by phospholipids which have variable head groups and fatty acyl chains. The fluidity of the membrane will depend on
1. only the nature of head groups.
2. only the length of the fatty acid chains irrespective of the extent of unsaturation.
3. only unsaturation irrespective of the length of the fatty acid chains.
4. length and degree of unsaturation of fatty acid chains.
46. Which one of the following RNA molecules is involved in regulation of gene expression?
1. miRNA
2. rRNA
3. 5S RNA
4. tRNA
47. In which organelle is NADP+ the final electron acceptor?
1. Only chloroplast
2. Only mitochondrion
3. Both chloroplast and mitochondrion
4. Lysosome
48. When the K'q = 1, AG is equal to
1. -1.
2. 0.
3. +1.
4. 10.
49. Which one of the following human pathogen is a flagellated protozoan?
1. Trypanosoma
2. Plasmodium
3. Paramecium
4. Entamoeba
50. Which of the following mammalian cells usually does NOT divide in adult life?
1. Epithelial cells in lung
2. Nerve cells in brain
3. Liver cells
4. Osteoblast cells
51. What happens to the Cdk-cyclin A complex at metaphase?
1. Both cyclin A and Cdk remain undegraded
2. Only Cdk is degraded
3. Only cyclin A is degraded
4. Both cyclin A and Cdk are degraded
52. The average human genome has approximately 3x109 base pairs coding for
various proteins. If an average protein contains 400 amino acids, what is the maximum number of proteins that can be encoded by the human genome?
|
1. |
2 |
5 |
X |
106 |
|
2. |
2 |
5 |
X |
107 |
|
3. |
3 |
0 |
X |
106 |
|
4. |
3 |
5 |
X |
107 |
53. In eukaryotes, the interaction of enhancer and promoter elements is brought closer by
1. zinc finger.
2. DNA looping.
3. helix turn helix.
4. palindrome.
54. Which of the following cytoskeleton elements guides the movement of vesicles containing cell wall precursors from their site of formation in Golgi to the site of new wall formation in a growing pollen tube?
1. Myosin
2. Actin
3. Kinesin
4. Dynein
55. Ionophores are small hydrophobic molecules that can partition into the lipid bilayer and increase their permeability to specific inorganic ions. Which of the following is a channel forming ionophore?
1. Valinomycin.
2. Actinomycin.
3. Gramicidin A.
4. Nicin.
56. Which GTPases regulate intracellular transport in mammalian cells through vesicle fusion?
1. Rab
2. Ran
3. Ras
4. Rho
57. The region where RNA polymerase binds to promoter in prokaryotes is called
1. Pribnow box.
2. Hogness box.
3. Homeo box.
4. Shine-Dalgarno box.
58. Which of the following features highlights the difference between Z-DNA and B-DNA?
1. Double helical nature
2. Orientation of phosphate backbone
3. Pairing of G - C
4. Antiparallel nature of two polynucleotide strands of double helix
59. Ribosomal subunits are assembled in
1. cytoplasm.
2. nucleolus.
3. nucleus.
4. endoplasmic reticulum.
60. The absence of sigma factor in RNA polymerase
1. affects elongation only.
2. blocks initiation only.
3. affects both initiation and elongation.
4. does not affect transcription.
61. Which of the following features is not required in the initiation step of protein synthesis?
1. Amino acid activation
2. Binding of mRNA to the ribosomes
3. Transfer of activated amino acid to tRNA
4. Joining together of two amino acids by peptide bond formation
62. By which of the following mechanisms does cycloheximide inhibit protein synthesis?
1. Blocking the peptidyl transferase of 80S euokaryotic ribosomes
2. Blocking the peptidyl transferase of 70S prokaryotic ribosomes
3. By binding to DNA dependent RNA polymerase
4. By binding to sigma factor
1. Lactose
2. Galactose
3. Allolactose
4. IPTG
64. Antitermination of RNA synthesis is a major mechanism of regulation in
1. lytic phase of X phage.
2. lysogenic phase of X phage.
3. lac operon.
4. trp operon.
65. Influenza virus binds to its host cells through which one of the following carbohydrate moiety.
1. N-acetyl glucosamine
2. N-acetyl neuraminic acid
3. Fucose
4. Mellibiose
66. In mammals, G protein coupled receptors (GPCR) play a major role in mediating effects of various hormones NOT through
1. activation of protein kinase A.
2. activation of adenylate cyclase.
3. inactivation of adenylate cyclase.
4. activation of tyrosine kinase activity.
67. Receptors for neurotransmitters are located on the
1. cell surface.
2. nucleus.
3. endosome.
4. Golgi apparatus.
68. One of the major transmembrane proteins in a tight junction is
1. lectin.
2. claudin.
3. adherin.
4. integrin.
69. Retroviruses are well known as cancer causing agents because it
1. causes mutations in host genes involved in growth.
2. integrates their proviral DNA next to protooncogenes.
3. generates defective viruses lacking some of the viral genes.
4. integrates their T antigens into the host genome.
70. Select the correct statement:
1. In vertebrate development, immune and nervous systems are the prevalent sites for apoptosis.
2. Apoptosis is triggered by growth stimulus.
3. The tumor suppressor factor p53 inhibits apoptosis.
4. The soluble form of tumor necrosis factor cannot induce apoptosis.
71. ELISA assay
1. uses complement mediated cell lysis.
2. uses a radiolabeled second antibody.
3. involves addition of substrate which is converted to coloured end product.
4. requires specialized red blood cells.
72. In mosaic development, the prospective potency of cells
1. equals its prospective fate.
2. is greater than prospective fate.
3. is less than prospective fate.
4. and fate are unrelated.
73. Experiments with sea urchin demonstrated species specific sperm-egg recognition through the protein
|
1. |
bindin. |
|
2. |
avidin. |
|
3. |
activin |
|
4. |
hyalin. |
74. Exposing a regenerating limb to which of the following chemicals results in the blastema proximalization?
1. Ascorbic acid
2. Thyroxine
3. Retinoic acid
4. Glutamic acid
75. Temperature-dependent sex determination is observed in
1. Drosophila.
2. amphibians.
3. reptiles.
4. sea urchins.
76. Some plants require vernalization (prolonged cold treatment) for transition to flowering. For floral induction, vernalization signal is perceived primarily by
1. young leaves subtending the apical meristem.
2. mature leaves near the root-shoot junction.
3. all vegetative parts.
4. shoot apical meristem.
77. Which phase of embryogenesis in plants is characterized by the initiation of deposition of storage reserves?
1. Globular stage
2. Heart stage
3. Torpedo stage
4. Cell enlargement stage
78. Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to growth of animals?
1. When all body parts grow at the same rate, it is called isometric growth.
2. When different body parts grow at different rates, it is called allometric growth.
3. Two-fold change in weight will cause a 1.26-fold expansion in length if growth is allometric.
4. Isometric growth cannot create dramatic changes in the structure of organisms.
79. Abnormalities during development caused by exogenous agents are called disruptions and the agents are specifically called
1. morphogen.
2. teratogen.
3. allergen.
4. mutagen.
80. At which of the following steps does application of dichlorophenyl-dimethyl urea (DCMU) inhibit electron flow during photosynthesis?
1. P680* Pheophytin
2. Qa Qb
3. Qb Cytb6f complex
4. Cytb6f complex plastocyanin
81. A major functional difference between the succinyl CoA-synthetase of plant and animal cell mitochondria is that it
1. does not produce ATP in plant cell.
2. does not produce GTP in plant cell.
3. produces ATP in plants and GTP in animals.
4. produces GTP in plants and ATP in animals.
82. A common symptom of molybdenum deficiency in plants is the accumulation of nitrate in the cytosol, which results from
1. reduced nitrite reductase activity.
2. reduced nitrate reductase activity.
3. reduced transport of nitrate into the vacuoles.
4. reduced transport of nitrate into the chloroplasts.
83. The Rht mutations in wheat that were pivotal for 'Green Revolution' cause reduction in plant height due to impairment in
1. gibberellic acid biosynthesis pathway.
2. gibberellic acid signaling pathway.
3. auxin biosynthetic pathway.
4. auxin response pathway.
84. Which of the following phytochrome controlled responses displays red/far-red reversibility?
1. Very low-fluence responses
2. Low-fluence responses
3. High-irradiance responses
4. Very high-irradiance responses
85. At permanent wilting point, plants cannot regain turgor pressure even if transpiration stops because
1. water potential of soil (yw) is less than or equal to osmotic potential (yS) of the plant.
2. yw is higher than yS .
3. yw and yS are unaltered.
4. yS remains unaltered.
Alkaloid production in plants is regulated by a change in the endogenous pool of
1. gibberellins.
86.
2. jasmonates.
3. brassinosteroids.
4. abscisic acid.
87. Flooding and submergence of plants leads to anoxic conditions. Usually, flood-tolerant species alter their developmental programme, resulting in
1. increased activity at the apical meristem.
2. growth retardation of foliage.
3. elongation growth of their stems.
4. increased proliferation of root system.
88. An organism with the genotype AABbCcDD is selfed. The four genes are
independently assorting. What proportion of the progeny will show the genotype AAbbccDD?
1. 1/4
2. 1/16
3. 1/64
4. 1/256
89. Two fruitflies with mutant eye color were crossed. All progenies obtained from this cross had wild type eye colour as
1. the mutations are allelic.
2. one mutation is dominant over the other.
3. the mutations are co-dominant.
4. the mutations are in two different genes.
90. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of a rare disorder.
Cbr-0
Based on the above pedigree, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
1. Autosomal dominant
2. X-linked recessive
3. X-linked dominant
4. Y-linked dominant
91. Which of the following pair of relatives will have the highest genetic correlation?
1. First double cousins
2. Half siblings
3. Brothers
4. Brother-sister
92. a1; a2, a3 are three alleles of a gene in Neurospora. Crosses between different a mutants gave the following results
|
a1 x a2 |
3 a X a1 |
a2 x a3 |
|
1 |
1 |
1 |
|
a1+ |
a1+ |
a2+ |
|
++ |
a1+ |
a2+ |
|
+ a2 |
++ |
++ |
|
+ a2 |
+a3 |
+ a3 |
The process which best explains this result is
1. gene conversion.
2. forward mutation.
3. non-homologous recombination.
4. incomplete dominance.
93. You are provided with an E. coli strain auxotrophic for the amino acids Trp, Leu and Val. To select for double revertants in Trp and Leu, which amino acid(s) would you include in the growth medium?
1. Trp
2. Leu
3. Val
4. Trp, Leu, Val
94. UAG and UAA are both nonsense codons. What kind of single point mutation would cause reversion of UAG to a meaningful codon?
1. Transition
2. Transversion
3. Frameshift
4. Inversion
95. E. coli cells were simultaneously infected by two rll bacteriophage mutants. From the progeny obtained after lysis of the E. coli cells it was observed that some of the bacteriophages showed a wild type phenotype. These were obtained at extremely low frequency. This is due to
1. complementation of the two mutations.
2. recombination between the two mutant chromosomes.
3. transposition of the mutation.
4. incomplete penetrance.
96. Which of the following hormones stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and the secretion of K+ in the kidney?
1. Vasopressin
2. Thyroxine
3. Prolactin
4. Aldosterone
97. The correct sequence in vertebrate embryonic development is
1. gastrocoel - blastocoel - notochord - neural crest.
2. blastocoel - gastrocoel - neural crest - notochord.
3. gastrocoel - blastocoel - neural crest - notochord.
4. blastocoel - neural crest - gastrocoel - notochord.
98. A person has a vision problem caused by the image of an object at infinity getting focused in front of retina. The error can be corrected by the use of
1. biconvex lens.
2. cylindrical lens.
3. plano convex lens.
4. biconcave lens.
99. During electrical stimulation-induced depolarization of neuron, voltage-gated
1. Na+ channels will close.
2. K+ channels will close.
3. Cl- channels will open.
4. Na+ channels will open.
100. The primary function of diaphragm is to
1. control blood pressure.
2. regulate respiration.
3. support the heart.
4. keep the rib cage dilated.
101. In nephron, the main role of deamination is to
1. reduce urine pH.
2. reduce water loss.
3. release urea.
4. release uric acid.
102. During inspiration, the air that we breathe moves through different regions of the associated organs in the sequence of
1. larynx > nasopharynx > trachea > glottis.
2. nasopharynx > glottis > larynx > trachea.
3. glottis > nasopharynx > larynx > trachea.
4. larynx > glottis > nasopharynx > trachea.
103. Knee jerk reaction is an example of what type of reflex?
1. Monosynaptic
2. Multi synaptic
3. Conditioned
4. Conscious
104. Which of the following processes is a major problem in interpreting molecular phylogeny?
1. Horizontal transfer of genes
2. Gene duplication
3. Synonymous mutations
4. Non-synonymous mutations
105. In a tissue, a cell that markedly differs in form, size and content from other cells of the same tissue is called
1. intermediary cell.
2. isotropic cell.
3. idi oblast cell.
4. myrosin cell.
106. Among the extant reptiles which group is phylogenetically closely related to Aves?
1. Turtles
2. Lizards
3. Snakes
4. Crocodiles
107. The group of organisms that is now separated from the other groups of fungi based on their motile spores and cellulose-rich cell wall is
1. Myxomycetes.
2. Zygomycetes.
3. Deuteromycetes.
4. Oomycetes.
Some floristic elements common to both India and China are in the genus
1. Ginkgo.
108.
2. Rhododendron.
3. Poeciloneuron.
4. Erinocarpus.
109. The difference between Indian and African wild herbivore fauna is that there are no
1. antelopes in India.
2. deer in Africa.
3. odd-toed animals in India.
4. even-toed hoofed animals in Africa.
110. Which of the following bird species is endangered?
1. Hill myna
2. Great Indian bustard
3. Crow-pheasant
4. Grey hornbill
111. In spite of the prevalence of herbivory, the earth continues to be largely green because
1. the number of herbivore species is low.
2. herbivores are very inefficient feeders.
3. herbivore numbers are kept low by their predators.
4. herbivory promotes plant growth.
112. Which of the following curves represents the general relationship between body size (S) and intrinsic rate of population growth (r) ?
113. Which of the following reproductive strategies is characteristic of marine invertebrates?
1. Long generation time, small clutch size
2. Short generation time, small clutch size
3. Long generation time, large clutch size
4. Short generation time, large clutch size
114. Bergmanns Rule refers to a general tendency of mammals to be
1. larger in size in colder areas of their distribution.
2. smaller in size in areas of their distribution.
3. darker-pigmented in warmer areas of their distribution.
4. lighter-pigmented in warmer areas of their distribution.
115. When removal of a species from an ecosystem affects persistence of many other species and the impact of that species removal is disproportionate to its abundance, the species is known as
1 indicator species.
2. keystone species.
3. flagship species.
4. umbrella species.
116. Biomass turnover time is the ratio between biomass and productivity of an ecosystem. Which of the following forests should have highest biomass turnover time?
1. Tropical dry forests
2. Tropical wet forests
3. Temperate deciduous forests
4. Boreal forests
117. Conversion of nitrite to nitrate in soil is done by the bacteria of genus
1. Azotobacter.
2. Nitrosomonas.
3. Nitrobacter.
4. Pseudomonas.
118. In a population with two alleles a and b of a genotype in a ratio of 0.2 and 0.8 in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals in a sample of 300 can be expected to be homozygous for allele a?
1. 192
2. 12
3. 64
4. 96
119. Defective alleles are eliminated rapidly from a population if they are
1. recessive.
2. dominant.
3. codominant.
4. in multiple copies.
120. The correct expression of Hamilton rule for the evaluation of altruism is [C = the cost of a behavioral act to the actor, b = the benefit of that act to a beneficiary, and r = the genetic relatedness between the actor and the beneficiary]
1. c < b-r
2. c < b
3. c-r < b
4. r < b-c
121. The evolutionary basis of sexual dimorphism is
1. differential investment in offspring.
2. difference in aggression.
3. difference in sex chromosomes.
4. difference in autosomes.
122. The evolutionary appearance of the first mammals was
1. after the extinction of dinosaurs and before the appearance of birds.
2. before the extinction of dinosaurs and after the appearance of birds.
3. before the extinction of dinosaurs and before the appearance of birds.
4. after the extinction of dinosaurs and after the appearance of birds.
123. Both the Luria-Delbruck experiment and the Lederberg and Lederberg experiment demonstrate
1. pre-selection mutations.
2. post-selection mutations.
3. directed mutations.
4. adaptive mutations.
124. Vampire bats regurgitate food in order to feed a starving member of their group. This is an example of
1. group selection.
2. reciprocal altruism.
3. selfish behavior.
4. K-selection.
125. The first appearance of amphibians on earth was during the period
1. Silurian.
2. Carboniferous.
3. Triassic.
4. Jurassic.
126. In a transgenic mouse experiment a founder male produces 100 pups and only 20 of these are transgenic. This result leads to the conclusion that the
1. founder transgenic animal is chimaeric.
2. founder animal is mosaic.
3. transgene is integrated on Y-chromosome.
4. transgene is integrated on X-chromosome.
127. An inbred mouse is cloned using another mouse strain as an egg donor. The genetic relationship between the original inbred mouse and its clone will be
1. 100%.
2. 99-100%.
3. 95-99%.
4/ 90-95%.
128. Which of the following elements can be used to immobilize a reduced protein?
1. Calcium
2. Potassium
3. Gold
4. Sodium
129. D-amino acids
1. cannot be produced by fermentation.
2. can be produced by E. coli.
3. can be produced by yeast.
4. can be produced by microbes provided with chiral precursors of D-amino acids.
130. Which of the following viruses is used for biocontrol of insect pests of plants?
1. Cauliflower mosaic virus
2. Cucumber mosaic virus
3. Rice tungro virus
4. Nuclear polyhedrosis virus
131. What ratio do you expect for codominant loci in F2 populations?
1. 1:1
2. 3:1
3. 1:2:1
4. 9:3:3:1
132. The copy number of a transgene in plants can be deciphered by
1. Southern blotting.
2. northern blotting.
3. south western blotting.
4. far western blotting.
133. It is hypothesized that the mean () longevity of a Drosophila strain is 18 days, with a variance (a) of 3 days. What values of longevity in a sampled population will lead to rejection of the null hypothesis at 95% confidence level?
1. Only values less than 15.
2. Values less than 15 and more than 18
3. Only values more than 21
4. Values less than 12 and more than 24
134. Normalized Differential Vegetation Index (NDVI) in remote sensing refers to the following spectral band derivation:
1. Near IR - Red
2. Red / Near Red
3. (Near IR - Red) / (Near IR + Red)
4. (Near IR - Red) / Red
135. Function of a monochromator in a spectrophotometer is
1. focusing a straight beam of light.
2. dividing a light beam into its component wavelengths.
3. selecting a desired wavelength.
4. creating a light source.
136. Which of the following methods is the most appropriate for estimating the population density of burrowing animals?
1. Quadrat sampling
2. Line transect sampling
3. T ag-recapture method
4. Nearest neighbour distance method
137. A radioactive sample was counted in a scintillation counter and a value of 194930 cpm was obtained. The counting efficiency was found to be 95.7%. What is the actual amount of radioactivity present in the sample?
1. 181171 dpm
2. 190411 dpm
3. 203600 dpm
4. 211326 dpm
138. Which one of the following treatments does NOT enhance the response of a film to radioisotopes in autoradiography?
1. Staining the gel with Coomassie blue before drying
2. Use of intensifying screens
3. Exposure at low temperature
4. Preflashing the film with a light flash
139. What is the length of oligonucleotide required to give consistent specific hybridization signal in a microarray?
1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 20
140. A protein is poorly expressed in a diseased tissue. To determine whether the defect is at the level of transcription or translation, which of the following blotting methods would you use?
1. Southern
2. Southern and northern
3. Northern and western
4. Western
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