Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati (IIT-G) 2007 JAM Biotechnology - Question Paper

JAM Biotechnology 2007
Full ques. Paper in attachment

Biotechnology Paper 2007

Which one of the following is    considered to be    the first biological catalyst when life originated on earth?

(A) RNA    (B)    DNA

(C) Protein    (D)    Lipid

According to the Linnean system of biological classification, the term Hominidae indicates

(A) class    (B)    order

(C) family    (D)    genus

Portuguese man-of-war belongs to the phylum

(A) Porifera    (B) Cnidaria

(C) Annelida    (D) Arthropoda

The endosperm in an angiosperm plant is

(A) haploid    (B) diploid

(C) triploid    (D) tetraploid

If an animal has biradial symmetry, then it has

(A)    only one plane of symmetry

(B)    two axes of rotational symmetry

(C)    two planes of symmetry; these two planes have no specific relationship to each other

(D)    two planes of symmetry; these two planes are at right angles to each other

The technique appropriate for sterilizing animal tissue culture media is

(A)    filtering through a 0.45 /m filter

(B)    autoclaving at 120 C

(C)    boiling at atmospheric pressure

(D)    using chemical agents

A population is isolated by a geographical barrier. The resulting spciation known as

(A) parapatric    (B) allopatric

(C) sympatric    (D) pseudopatric

8.    Which two of the following statements are TRUE in relation to human pregnancy?

P : The blastocyst consists of trophoblast, an inner cell mass and a central cavity Q : The morula becomes embedded in the endometrium during implantation

R : The placenta acts as an exchange mechanism between the mother and the fetus

S : Maternal and fetal blood are mixed while passing through the placenta

(A) P and Q    (B) R and S

(C) Q and S    (D) P and R

9.    Consider the following Groups:

Group I : Class of compounds Group II: Typical examples for Group I

Group III: Organism / cell associated with the production of these compounds

	Group I		Group II		Group III
PI.	Primary metabolite	Qi.	Antibiotic	Rl.	Bacteria
P2.	Secondary metabolite	Q2.	Amino acid	R2.	Yeast
P3.	Enzyme	Q3.	Cellulose	R3.	Fungus
P4.	Polysaccharide	Q4.	Lignin	R4.	B Lymphocytes
P5.	Recombinant protein	Q5.	Lipase	R5.	Plant Cells
P6.	Immunoglobulins	Q6.	Human insulin
		Q7.	IgG

Choose the correct match.

(A)    P1-Q2-R2, P2-Q1-R1, P3-Q5-R3, P4-Q4-R5, P5-Q3-R3, P6-Q7-R4

(B)    P1-Q1-R1, P2-Q2-R2, P3-Q3-R3, P4-Q4-R5, P5-Q5-R1, P6-Q6-R4

(C)    P1-Q2-R1, P2-Q1-R3, P3-Q6 R4, P4-Q3 R5, P5-Q7-R5, P6-Q1-R4

(D)    P1-Q2-R1, P2-Q1-R3, P3-Q5-R2, P4-Q3-R5, P5-Q6-R1, P6-Q7-R4

10. In Drosophila melanogaster, cherub wings (ch), black body (b) and cinnabar eyes (cn) are recessive to their corresponding alleles (represented as ch+, b+ and cn+, respectively) and are all located on chromosome 2. Homozygous wild type flies were mated with cherub, black and cinnabar flies and the resulting FI females were test crossed with cherub, black and cinnabar males. The following progeny were produced from the test cross:

ch	b+	cn	110
ch+ b+		cn+	780
ch+ b		cn	70
ch+ b+		cn	6
ch	b	cn	769
ch	b+	cn+	60
ch+ b		cn+	111
ch	b	cn+	9
Total			1915

Of these three genes, which one is in the middle?

(A)    The locus that determines cherub wings

(B)    The locus that determines cinnabar eyes

(C)    The locus that determines black body

(D)    Cannot be determined from the given data

11. Which one of the following modifications targets the proteins selectively to lysosomes?

(A)    Addition of N-acetylgalactosamine to a serine residue of the protein

(B)    Addition of a precise number of mannose residues to the protein

(C)    Phosphorylation of a specific mannose residue to mannose-6-phosphate

(D)    Addition of a peptide signal sequence to the N-terminus of the protein

12. The enzyme that is used to make the first strand cDNA from mRNA is

(A) Reverse transcriptase    (B) Restriction endonuclease

16.    Choose the correct set of words denoted by (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T) to fill in the blanks.

. use (Q) for antigen presentation. These antigen-displaying MHC molecules are recognized by (R) which express a unique co-receptor on their cell surface called as

(S) . On interaction with the antigen presenting cells, T cells respond by producing cytokines such as (T) .

(A)    P. All nucleated cells; Q. MHC I; R. Cytotoxic T Cells; S. CD4; T. Perforins

(B)    P. Macrophages; Q. MHC II; R. Cytotoxic T Cells; S. CD4; T. y-Interferon

(C)    P. B Lymphocytes; Q. MHC II; R. Helper T Cells (TH2); S. CD4; T. Interleukin-4

(D)    P. Dendritic Cells; Q. MHC I; R. Helper T Cells (TH1); S. CD8; T. GMCSF

17.    Which one of the following signaling pathways is CORRECT?

(A)    Signal > GPCR > G-Protein > Adenyl cyclase > cAMP Protein kinase A > Cellular response

(B)    Signal G-Protein > GPCR > Phospholipase C Inositol triphosphate (IP3) IP3-gated calcium channel > Release of Ca²⁺ ions

(C)    Hormone diffusion Hormone-receptor (HR) complex > Nuclear transport of HR complex G-protein modification of HR complex (Transcription Factor) > Binding of Transcription Factor to DNA > Transcription of a gene

(D)    Signal GPCR > G-Protein > Tyrosine kinase Protein phosphorylation cAMP Cellular response

18.    Group I lists relationships that can exist between two organisms. Their descriptions are given in Group II. Find the correct set of matches between Groups I and II.

	Group I		Group II
P.	Ammensalism	1.	One population is benefited and the other is harmed
Q.	Commensalism	2.	Two dissimilar species living together in close association
R.	Symbiosis	3.	Heterotrophic organisms that ingest other organisms
S.	Parasitism	4.	One population is inhibited but the other is not affected
		5.	One population is benefited but the other is not affected
(A)	P-4, Q-l, R-2, S-3		(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-l
(C)	P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-5		(D) P 4, Q-5, R-2, S-l

P.    Liposomes

Q.    Cholesterol

R.    CaCk + HEPES buffer (calcium phosphate)

S.    Magnesium chloride

(A)    OnlyP    (B) P and Q

(C)    P andR    (D) P and S

Choose the correct set of matches between Groups I and II.

Group I Embryoid P. Q. 1. 2. Callus R. Meristem Scutellum 4. 5. P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5 P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-l (A) (C)

Group II An unorganized growth of plant cells in a culture medium A localized group of actively dividing cells from which permanent tissue systems such as root, shoot, leaf, and flower are derived A process whereby specialized, non-dividing cells begin to proliferate by mitotic division, presumed to involve regression to an undifferentiated state Mass of cells which has an external morphology resembling a proembryo The embryonic cotyledon of monocot plants (B) P-4, Q-l, R-2, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-l, R-3, S-4

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21. Choose the correct set of matches between Groups I and II.

Group I    Group II

P.	One extra copy of chromosome 13	1.	Edwards syndrome
Q.	XO	2.	Klinefelter syndrome
R.	XXY	3.	Patau syndrome
S.	One extra copy of chromosome 21	4.	Down syndrome
		5.	Turner syndrome
(A)	P-l, Q-5, R-3, S-2		(B) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4
(C)	P-2, Q-l, R-3, S-4		(D) P-4, Q-l, R-2, S-5

	Group I		Group II
PI.	Oxytocin	Rl.	Ovary
P2.	Insulin	R2.	Pituitary
P3.	Calcitonin	R3.	Testis
P4.	Estrogen	R4.	Pancreas
P5.	Epinephrine	R5.	Thyroid
P6.	Testosterone	R6.	Pineal
		R7.	Adrenal

(A)    P1-R5, P2-R4, P3-R2, P4-R1, P5-R6, P6-R3

(B)    P1-R4, P2-R6, P3-R5, P4-R3, P5-R7, P6-R1

(C)    P1-R2, P2-R4, P3-R5, P4-R1, P5-R7, P6-R3

(D)    Pl-Rl, P2-R4, P3-R7, P4-R1, P5-R6, P6-R5

23.    Which one of the following events DOES NOT take place in the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum in a eukaryotic cell?

(A)    Translation of a mRNA to the corresponding polypeptide chain

(B)    Folding of the polypeptide chain

(C)    Post-translational modifications of the polypeptide chain

(D)    Phospholipid synthesis

24.    The G₀ phase of the animal cell cycle can occur

(A) just before the G₁ phase    (B) just before the mitotic (M) phase

(C) during the G₂ phase    (D) late in the G_x phase

25.    Rowland and Molina were awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 1995 for their model which states that

(A)    chlorine monoxide, monoatomic chlorine and monoatomic oxygen produced from chlorofluorocarbons react with atmospheric ozone to cause destruction of ozone layer

(B)    oceans capacity to absorb additional carbon dioxide is limited, resulting in global warming

(C)    acid rains are the major problems to countries which burn more coal and gasoline in the process of industrialization

(D)    UV light damages DNA

26.    Which one of the following options correctly describes the import of Pi and ADP into the mitochondria?

(A)    By ADP - H⁺ antiport and Pi - H⁺ antiport

(B)    By ADP - ATP antiport and Pi - OH antiport

(C)    By ADP - OH^- antiport and Pi - OH antiport

(D)    By ADP - ATP antiport and Pi -H⁺ antiport

27.    In some goats, the presence of horns is produced by an autosomal allele that is dominant in males and recessive in females. A horned female is crossed with a hornless male. One of the resulting FI females is crossed with a hornless male. Then,

(A)    all male progeny and none of the female progeny will be horned

(B)    all female progeny and none of the male progeny will be horned

(C)    50% of the male progeny and none of the female progeny will be horned

(D)    50% of the female progeny and none of the male progeny will be horned

28.    If the genotypes Aa Bb Cc dd Ee and Aa bb Cc Dd Ee are crossed, what will be the proportion of AA BB CC DD EE genotype among the progeny?

(A) 1/32    (B) 1/64

(C) 1/256    (D) Zero

29.    An enzymatic reaction following Michaelis-Menten kinetics (Km = 50 |j,M) converts 10% of the substrate (initial concentration S₀ = 1 mM) to the product in 5 minutes. The maximum reaction velocity (in |i,M/minute) of the enzyme is approximately

(A) 10    (B) 20

(C) 50    (D) 180

30.    An enzymatic reaction following Michaelis-Menten kinetics (Km = 50 |xM) converts 10% of the substrate (initial concentration S₀ = 1 mM) to the product in 5 minutes. If the enzyme concentration is doubled and the substrate concentration is brought down to 0.1 mM in the initial reaction mixture, the time (in minutes) taken for 50% conversion will be approximately

(A) 1    (B) 2

31.    Four mutant strains of E. coli having the following characteristics were isolated:

Mutant strain 1 : lac-repressor is not able to bind to operator because of a mutation in the operator region of the lac operon Mutant strain 2 : Allolactose is not able to bind to repressor because of a mutation in the repressor-encoding gene

Mutant strain 3 : Catabolite activator protein (CAP) is not able to bind to the promoter because of a mutation in the promoter region Mutant strain 4 : cAMP is not able to bind to CAP because of a mutation in the CAP-encoding gene

lac Genes are expressed in strain(s)

(A)    1 only

(B)    1, 3, and 4 only

(C)    1 and 4 only

(D)    1 and 2 only, but in the presence of IPTG

32.    Which one of the following statements regarding mitochondria is FALSE?

(A)    Oxidation of NADH present in the mitochondrial matrix is coupled to proton transport out of the matrix

(B)    Hydrolysis of ATP present in the mitochondrial matrix is coupled to proton transport out of the matrix

(C)    Cytochrome c mediates electron transfer from cytochrome bci complex to cytochrome aaz complex

(D)    Cytosolic NADH is delivered to the mitochondrial NADH dehydrogenase complex by the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle pathway

33.    8 M urea solution became cold when it was prepared by dissolving an appropriate amount of urea in water at room temperature. This is because the dissolution of urea is

(A) exothermic and exergonic    (B) exothermic and endergonic

(C) endothermie and exergonic    (D) endothermie and endergonic

34. The shape of cholesterol is

(A) planar

(C) cylindrical

35.    In the pentose phosphate pathway, glucose is first converted to ribulose-5-phosphate by oxidative decarboxylation. Then, ribulose-5-phosphate undergoes

(A)    further oxidation

(B)    reduction

(C)    further decarboxylation

(D)    only rearrangements of carbon skeleton

36.    The vitamin, whose derivative is NOT a coenzyme of E. coli pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, is

(A) pyridoxal    (B) thiamine

(C) niacin    (D) riboflavin

37.    Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A)    All microarrays are DNA microarrays

(B)    Complete genome sequence should be known to make a microarray

(C)    All the microarrays use radioisotopes

(D)    Microarrays can be used to measure mRNA levels

38.    For a given unicellular organism, which one of the following needs to be characterized only once?

(A) Genome    (B) Transcriptome

(C) Proteome    (D) Metabolome

39.    The metabolite that is NOT used by brain as a source of energy under conditions of prolonged low blood-glucose levels is

O

(B)

OH O

(D)

40.    A certain purified DNA sample was cut with two restriction endonucleases El and E2. The following results were obtained from agarose gel electrophoresis

Sample cut with El alone: two bands of size 35 kb and 15 kb Sample cut with E2 alone: two bands of size 40 kb and 10 kb

Sample cut simultaneously with El and E2: three bands of size 35 kb, 10 kb and 5 kb From these data, it can be inferred that the DNA has

(A)    two sites for El and one site for E2

(B)    one site for El and two sites for E2

(C)    one site each for El and E2

(D)    three sites for El and one site for E2

41.    Which one of the following protects membrane lipids against damage by reactive oxygen species produced in the chloroplast?

(A) Carotenoids    (B) Chlorophyll a

(C) Chlorophyll b    (D) Phycocyanin

42.    Which one of the following elements NEED NOT be present in an expression vector?

(A)    Selection marker to select for host cells containing the vector

(B)    Two different origins of replication

(C)    Promoter sequence upstream of the cloned gene

(D)    Unique restriction enzyme sites for insertional cloning

43.    A DNA sequencing reaction was performed with the fragment 5-XXXXGCGATCGYYYY-3 as the template, dideoxy GTP, all the four dNTPs, and the required primers and enzyme. XXXX and YYYY in the given DNA fragment represent primer binding sites. The set of fragments obtained during the reaction will be (the primers are not shown in the amplified fragments)

(A)    5'-CGATCGC-3' only

(B)    5'-CG-3', 5'-CGCTAG-3', 5'-CGCTAGC-3'

(C)    5'-CG-3', 5'-CGATCG-3', 5'-CGATCGC-3'

(D)    5'-G-3', 5'-GCG-3', 5'-GCGATCG-3'

44. AG^0/ for the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and Pi is -32 kJ/mol. This means that when ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi in a cell,

(A)    -32 kJ/mol of free energy becomes available to the cell for utilization

(B)    free energy available to the cell cannot be more than -32 kJ/mol

(C)    at least -32 kJ/mol of free energy becomes available to the cell for utilization

(D)    free energy available to cell cannot be determined solely by the value of AG'

46. Let z = x + iy and |z-i| = |z+l|. Then x and y satisfy the equation

(A) x - y = 1    (B) x + y = 1

(C) x + y=0    (D) jc- y = 0

47. Let Pix) be the polynomial of least degree with rational coefficients and 1 + V5 is a root of Pix) = 0. Then Pix) is

(B) x²+2x + 4

(C) x²+2x-4

48. The value of cos4 (B) 1/2 (D) 1 (A) 1/4 (C) 3/4

71 4 f + COS is 00 00

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49. Let C be the circle passing through the origin with its centre lying on the straight lines 3x - 2y = 0 and x + y - 5 = 0. Then the equation of C is

(B) x² +y² +4x -6y = 0

X

57. A wire of length 50 cm is to be cut into two pieces for making a square and a circle. For their combined area to be a minimum, one of the pieces must have a length (in cm.) of

2it

58. The value of the definite integral J x | sinar | dx is

0

(A) 2 n    (B) 3 n

(C) 4 n

dy

59. The solution of the differentied equation x--y = 2x In x, x >0 subject to the condition

dx

61.    A force of magnitude 50 N acts in a direction making an angle of 30 with the positive x - axis. Then the components (in N) along the coordinate axes OX and OY are

(A) 25,25    (B) 25>/3,25

(C) 25,25/2    (D) 25V3/2,25/2

62.    The maximum value    of lx + 10y subject to the constraints x + 3y>3, x + y <2 and x > 0, y > 0 is

(A) 20    (B) 10

(C) 14    (D) 15.5

63. The product obtained by heating an equimolar mixture of adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine is

(A)	Nylon 6		(B) Nylon 66
(C)	Polyurethane		(D) Terylene
The correct match between the items			of Group I and Group II
	Group I		Group II
P.	Fehlings solution	1.	Detection of aldehyde
Q.	Ferric chloride solution	2.	Detection of glucose
R.	SchifFs base formation	3.	Detection of phenol
S.	Iodoform test	4.	Detection of -COCH3
(A)	P-2, Q-l, R-3, S-4
(B)	P-4, Q-3, R-l, S-2
(C)	P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-4
(D)	P-2, Q-3, R-l, S-4

65.    A mixture of CH₃-CH₂-CH=CH₂ and HBr (slight excess) in ether DOES NOT show optical activity because

(A)    an achiral product is formed

(B)    a single chiral product is formed

(C)    the product formed is a racemic mixture

(D)    CH₃-CH₂-CH=CH₂ and HBr do not react in ether

66.    The two compounds given below are

Me    Cl

^clVl^H HMe

HUoH    HUMe Me OH

(A) identical    (B) enantiomeric

(C) diastereomeric    (D) meso compounds

67.    The correct match between the items of Group I and Group II is Group I    Group II

Phosphatidic acid    1.    Zwitterionic

Triacylglycerol    2.    Hydrophilic

Glycogen    3.    Hydrophobic

4.    Amphiphatic P-4, Q-2, R-3 (B) P-i, Q-3, R-2 P-l, Q-4, R-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-l

68.    The correct match between the items of Group I and Group II is

	Group I		Group II
P.	Preparation of alkanes	1.	Reimer-Tiemann
Q.	CeHe + C2H5CI + AlCls	2.	Elimination reaction
R.	CeHsOH + CHCI3 + NaOH	3.	Friedel-Crafts
S.	C2H5Br + KOH (alcoholic)	4.	Wurtz
(A)	P-3, Q-2, R-l, S-4		(B) P-4, Q-3, R-l, S-2
(C)	P-l, Q-3, R-2, S-4		(D) P-4, Q-2, R-l, S-3

Group I    Group II

P. McLafferty rearrangement 1. UV-Vis spectroscopy Q. Chemical shift 2. IR spectroscopy R. Molar extinction coefficient 3. NMR spectroscopy S. Rf values 4. Mass spectrometry 5. Thin layer chromatography 6. Gel electrophoresis

(A) P-l, Q-3, R-6, S-4    (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-6 (C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5    (D) P-4, Q-3, R-l, S-5

70.    The acidity of

P: C₂H₅COOH Q: C₂H₅NH₂    R: C₂H₅OH    S: C₂H₅SH

follows the order

(A) P > S > R > Q    (B) P > R > S > Q (C) S > Q > R > P    (D) R > Q > P > S

71.    Which one of the following is paramagnetic?

(A) CO    (B) N₂

(C) NO    (D) [NO]⁺

72.    The basic oxide amongst the following is

(A) C1₂0    (B) Na₂0

(C) P₄O₁₀    (D) S0₃

73. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

(A) BF₃    (B) H₂0

74.    The shape of [BrF₄]⁺ ion is    j

(A)    regular tetrahedron

(B)    square planar

(C)    trigonal pyramidal

(D)    see-saw OR irregular tetrahedron

75.    Which one of the following complex ions has a square planar geometry?

(A) [PtClJ²-    (B) [NiClJ²"

(C) [Zn(CN)J²-    (D) [Cd(CN)₄]²~

76.    Assertion [a]: Dilute liquid ammonia solution of alkali metals (M) conduct electricity. Assertion [b]: The electrical conductivity is due to the formation of solvated electrons

and M⁺ ions.

Which one of the following is CORRECT?

(A)    [a] is true but [b] is false

(B)    Both [a] and [b] are false

(C)    Both [a] and [b] are true and [b] is the correct reason for [a]

(D)    Both [a] and [b] are true but [b] is not the correct reason for [a]

77.    The set of quantum numbers, n = 2, I - 2, m₍ = 0,

(A)    is forbidden

(B)    describes an electron in a 2d orbital

(C)    describes an electron in a 2p orbital

(D)    describes one of the five orbitals of similar type

78.    A zero order reaction is 50% complete in 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) from the start of the reaction required for 80% completion is

(A) 42    (B) 48

79.    The rate equation for the reaction 2X + 3Y Z is rate = k[X\[Y]. Consider the following statements

P : The unit of k is mol L^_1 s^_1

Q : The value of k is independent of the initial concentrations of X and Y R : By doubling the concentrations of both X and Y, the rate is doubled

Then, which one of the following is CORRECT?

(A) P is true, Q is false, R is false    (B) P is true, Q is true, R is false

(C) P is false, Q is true, R is true    (D) P is false, Q is true, R is false

80.    The following data are given.

N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g)    2NH3 (g),    AHi

2NHs (g) + (5/2)02 (g) 2NO (g) + 3H₂0 (1), AH₂ 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)    H2O (1),    AH₃

AHi

AH₃

The AHnet for the reaction N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2N0 (g) is

(A) AHnet = AHi + AH2 + AH3 (C) AHnet = -(3/2)AHi + AH2 - AHs

(B) AHnet = AHi + AH2 AH3 (D) AHnet = AHi + AH2 - (3/2)AHs

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81. Consider the equilibrium reaction N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g). If the total pressure of the equilibrium mixture is p and the degree of dissociation of N2O4 (g) is x at 300 K, the partial pressure of NO2 (g) is

(A)

(C) I xp

82. From the data given below

A A²⁺ + 2e, E = +0.80 V

A A³⁺ + 3e, E = +0.99 V

the calculated E for A²⁺ > A³⁺ + e is (A) +0.19 V

(C) +1.37 V

83. A simple pendulum of mass m and length I is given a horizontal velocity v when it is at rest in the equilibrium position. Let v² - gl, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. The

angle from the vertical at the turning point is (A) ji/3

(C) alG

84. A force F is applied to a block of mass M resting on a surface, as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction between M and the surface is J2_S. If the mass DOES NOT move,

then

	M	F
		-

(A) F > n_sMg    (B) F < n_sMg

(C) F=Mg    (D) F < Mg

85. Figure below shows the variation of stopping potential (V) as a function of frequency ( V ) of the incident radiation in a photoelectric experiment. If the intensity of the incident radiation is increased, then in the graph

(A)    the slope alone changes

(B)    the V-intercept alone changes

(C)    both the slope and V-intercept remain the same

(D)    both the slope and V-intercept change

86. When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically to one-fourth of its original volume, the pressure increases by 8 times. The ratio of the molar heat capacities (C_p I C_v) of the gas can

be

(A) 1.4    (B) 1.67

87.    A hydrogen atom in the 3^rd excited state can have

(A)    3 Lyman, 2 Balmer and 1 Paschen transitions

(B)    2 Balmer and 1 Paschen transitions

(C)    2 Lyman and 1 Paschen transitions

(D)    2 Lyman, 3 Balmer and 1 Paschen transitions

88.    Consider two simple harmonic motions represented by x_x = A₀ cos(cat + ) and x₂ = A₀ cos (cot). At t = 0, = -A₀ . If these two simple harmonic motions are combined, the

amplitude of the resultant motion is

(A) zero    (B) 2A₀

(C)    (D) V2A₀

89. Four capacitors (each of 1 F) are connected as shown in the figure. If the capacitor assembly is charged to V volts by connecting to the points P and R, the total energy stored in the assembly is

IF
IF =Z

I_V²

2

(C) 4 V²

90. When the resistance R in an LCR circuit is increased, the resonance frequency of the circuit

(A)    increases, but the resonance becomes broader

(B)    decreases, but the resonance becomes sharper

(C)    remains the same, but the resonance becomes sharper

(D)    remains the same, but the resonance becomes broader

91. Figure shows the P-V diagram for an ideal gas. If the system has a temperature T₀ at X, the temperature at Y is

P/K

3Po

Po J

V

92.    When the temperature of water is increased from 0C, its

(A)    volume decreases and then increases

(B)    volume increases and then decreases

(C)    volume increases

(D)    volume remains constant

93.    The first overtone of an open organ pipe of length I was found to be the same as that of the fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe when the pipe was immersed in water upto a certain level. Then, the water fills the tube upto a level of

^(B) 7^l

4

94. A projectile is launched at an angle 6 with respect to the horizontal with an initial velocity u.

The coordinates of the moving projectile at the highest point are

95. For obtaining a REAL image using a biconvex lens of focal length f, the distance d between the object and the image must satisfy the condition

(A) d = <=o only    (B) 2f<d<4f

(C) 0<d<2f    (D) d>4f

96. If a conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q, which one of the following graphs represents the variation of potential (V) as a function of distance (r) from the centre of the sphere

97. An electron having initial velocity    v₀ and momentum p₀ is accelerated in a constant electric field E . After a time t, it acquires velocity v and momentum p. The change in the wavelength of the electron is

(A)    (B) A

Po    P

(C) fcsl    (D)

Pov    Po

98. A particle of mass m tied to a string is made to move in a circular path of radius ii in a VERTICAL plane. Neglect the air friction and mass of the string. Total work done on the particle when the particle moves from P to Q is

(B) mgR

99. If the biasing is changed from forward to reverse across a semiconductor p-n junction, the width of the depletion layer

(A) decreases    (B) does not change

(C) vanishes    (D) increases

100. Currents I_x and I₂ flow in opposite directions along two long coaxial tubes as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at any point in the annular region depends on

(A) I2 only    (B) II only

(C) I_x-h    (D) 7₁₊/₂

Attachment: indian-institute-of-technology-guwahati--iit-g--2007--2574-1.pdf

Earning:   Approval pending.